The key to the Pre-Trib Rapture:

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Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
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#41
Yes we agree. The rapture is in sink with this return for her.

He returns for his bride.

He returns 7 yearrs later with his bride.

All very simple


In no way is the return on horses the rapture .....which is auhenticated by scripture
More one liners, without scripture for support of claims made, a standard
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
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#42
God, the two witnesses, and the church.

The devil, the anti-Christ and false prophet, and their followers.

Is this like the final showdown?
A remake of Moses/Aaron against Pharaoh of Egypt, and the sealed church is protected against the plagues

Final showdown?

More like God's in control, and the score is 1,000 to 0, the game is in the 9th inning, 2 outs, with no men on, 2 strikes, and the pitcher is winding up!

The visible plagues to the world will show the world, Gods in charge!

Imagine, 5 months desiring to die, and the sealed church is protected?

As the unsaved world, will worship the Lord God at the feet of his believers!

Revelation 3:9-10KJV
9 Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
10 Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

Gods protection during the final hours of earth's temptation, enter the dwelling and shut the door, just like the passover in Egypt (y)(y)(y)(y)(y)(y)(y)

Isaiah 26:20-21KJV
20 Come, my people, enter thou into thy chambers, and shut thy doors about thee: hide thyself as it were for a little moment, until the indignation be overpast.
21 For, behold, the Lord cometh out of his place to punish the inhabitants of the earth for their iniquity: the earth also shall disclose her blood, and shall no more cover her slain.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
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#43
Your claim of accusation of saints is false, a distraction from Gods words of truth presented, Jesus Christ returns in fire and Final judgement, (Fact)
Wrong again. Jesus returns in the clouds for His saints.

When He returns to the earth He brings judgment against those who are against Israel and in the process of destroying them from off the earth.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
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#44
Wrong again. Jesus returns in the clouds for His saints.

When He returns to the earth He brings judgment against those who are against Israel and in the process of destroying them from off the earth.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
All claims of a pre-trib rapture are nothing more than the second coming, last day resurrection, only the blind believe Darby & Adulterer Scofield.

The main scripture used by supporters of the pre-trib rapture is 1 Thess 4:15-17 below, this is nothing more than the (Second Coming) (Last Day) resurrection, not a Pre-Trib rapture.

1. Is a resurrection of the believer seen in 1 Thess 4:15-17 below, 100% yes!

2. Does this resurrection take place on the (Last Day) as Jesus Christ taught below in John 6:39-40, 100% yes!

3. Is the (Last Day) the time of final judgement as Jesus Christ taught in John 12:48 below, 100% yes!

Many deny the truth of Gods words below, that are simple, clear, and very easy to understand.

(THE SECOND COMING, LAST DAY RESURRECTION)

1 Thessalonians 4:15-17KJV
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

(THE LAST DAY RESURRECTION)

John 6:39-40KJV
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

(THE LAST DAY JUDGEMENT)

John 12:48KJV
48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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#45
2 Thess 2:3
Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the departure comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition,
"The departure" is a departure from the correct translation. The various Bibles have falling away, apostasy, rebellion, revolt.

Strong's Concordance
apostasia: defection, revolt
Original Word: ἀποστασία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: apostasia
Phonetic Spelling: (ap-os-tas-ee'-ah)
Definition: defection, revolt
Usage: defection, apostasy, revolt.


Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 646: ἀποστασία
ἀποστασία, ἀποστασιας, ἡ (ἀφισταμαι), a falling away, defection, apostasy; in the Bible namely, from the true religion: Acts 21:21; 2 Thessalonians 2:3; ((Joshua 22:22; 2 Chronicles 29:19; 2 Chronicles 33:19); Jeremiah 2:19; Jeremiah 36:(29) 32 Complutensian; 1 Macc. 2:15). The earlier Greeks say ἀπόστασις; see Lob. ad Phryn., p. 528; (Winer's Grammar, 24).


What this means is that before the Man of Sin (the Antichrist) is revealed, there must be a Great Apostasy within Christendom. And that is exactly what we are seeing around us. "Departure" could mean anything, and is not even given as a meaning.

Since the Rapture has always been IMMINENT, we need not be concerned about anything. We know from 2 Thess 2 that before the Antichrist is revealed, the Restrainer (the Holy Spirit) must be "taken out of the way". Just as the Holy Spirit was sent from Heaven to earth on the day of Pentecost in 30 AD, He will return to Heaven in order to be "taken out of the way". And since He indwells all the saints, they too will be taken out of the way at the same time during the Resurrection/Rapture. So the Rapture could occur within the next little while.

The COVID conspiracy is a precursor to the reign of the Antichrist, and universal vaccinations could well be the means of administering the Mark of the Beast. Psychologically this has more impact since on the surface governments are protecting your health, when in fact they are doing the opposite.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
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#46
you all need to read John 14 chapter
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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#47
All claims of a pre-trib rapture are nothing more than the second coming, last day resurrection, only the blind believe Darby & Adulterer Scofield.
This shows that you are CLUELESS about the Bible doctrine. Darby an Scofield came a lot later than Christ and His apostles. And attacking Scofield does not even help your case. Scofield has already established himself as a sound bible teacher. People could dig up your past sins and accuse you also like like you accuse Scofield.

The Second Coming cannot possibly coincide with the Resurrection/Rapture. Indeed that would be absurd. The Second Coming is preceded by the Marriage of the Lamb, therefore the Resurrection/Rapture must precede the Marriage of the Lamb. Everything must be in its proper order.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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113
#48
you all need to read John 14 chapter
Correct. It is Christ Himself -- BEFORE HIS CRUCIFIXION -- who laid down the doctrine of the Pre-Tribulation Rapture of the saints. And that passage is generally ignored because it totally demolishes the attacks on Darby and Scofield.
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
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#49
This shows that you are CLUELESS about the Bible doctrine. Darby an Scofield came a lot later than Christ and His apostles. And attacking Scofield does not even help your case. Scofield has already established himself as a sound bible teacher. People could dig up your past sins and accuse you also like like you accuse Scofield.

The Second Coming cannot possibly coincide with the Resurrection/Rapture. Indeed that would be absurd. The Second Coming is preceded by the Marriage of the Lamb, therefore the Resurrection/Rapture must precede the Marriage of the Lamb. Everything must be in its proper order.
C.I. Scofield was an Adulterer, he abandoned his wife Leotine and two daughters in Kansas, and ran off to Dallas Texas where he pastored a small church, he divorced Leotine and ran off with the young girl in his sunday school class (Hettie Van Wart) 17 years younger than Scofield

Scofield and Hettie produced the 1909 reference notes, teaching John N. Darby's dispensationalism

(Fact) C.I. Scofield died in 1921, while remaining married to Hettie, while his wife Leotine lived (Adultery)

C.I. Scofield is a corrupt tree, and his reference notes produced in the Adulterous marriage is corrupt fruit.

This Adulterous corrupt fruit,was the greatest deception circulated in the world, with millions of the 1909 Scofield bible sold to the unaware, in the false teachings of a pre-trib rapture (Dispensationalism)

Matthew 7:17-18KJV
17 Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit.
18 A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit.
 
Mar 4, 2020
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#50
John 14 is a narrative spoken by Jesus about His Father's house, the way/truth/life, the promise of the Holy Spirit.

Jesus says He will return in these passages, but this is pre-crucifixion/death/burial/resurrection. John 14 is not a reference to the second coming of Christ or rapture, but rather Christ returning from the dead post-crucifixion.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
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#51
2 Thess 2:3
Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the departure comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition,

2 Thess 2:6
And now you know what is restraining, that he may be revealed in his own time.

2 Thess 2:8
And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will consume with the breath of His mouth and destroy with the brightness of His coming.

Our departure a.k.a. Rapture has nothing whatever to do with seven years of signs and escalating judgments. It is definitively linked to the man of sin being revealed, and must needs occur beforehand. That's it and that's all.
Hello CV5, you knew that I would show up regarding this claim. :cool:

The word here is 'apostasia' translated as 'rebellion, apostasy, falling away, defection, revolt, departure (implying desertion), etc.

The word 'apostasia' is derived from two words 'apo - away from' and 'histemi - stand,' properly 'away from ones stand, a leaving from a previous standing. This word is used in only one other time in scripture which is found in Acts 21:21

"Now they have been informed about you, that you teach all Jews among the Gentiles apostasy from Moses, telling them not to circumcise the children nor to walk in the customs."

Therefore, based on the other synonyms of apostasy, the word 'departure' cannot be used to mean to depart up to meet Christ in the air. If the word is used, it must keep the meaning of the original Greek word to mean departure from ones stand in faith and not taking off into the wild blue yonder.

I would also point out that, 'that Day' is not referring to 'the coming of our Lord and being gathered to Him' but to 'The Day of the Lord' found in verse 2 and also as 'that Day' in verse 3. Therefore, it is 'the Day of the Lord' that will not come until the apostasy occurs and the man of lawless ness is revealed.

The reason for the Thessalonians letter to Paul, which we don't see, is because there were false teachers there claiming that the Day of the Lord, the time of God's wrath, had already come. So since the Thessalonians knew Paul's teachings, that the gathering of the church would take place prior to the Day of the Lord, they were basically asking "He Paul, there are people here claiming that the day of the Lord has come, so why haven't we been caught up first as you taught us?" Of course Paul comforts them letting them know that the proof of being in the day of the Lord would be the apostasy and the revealing of the man of lawlessness, which had not happened and has yet to happen. It is not until after the church has been removed from the earth, the apostasy will have begun and the man of lawlessness has been revealed, as proof of being in the Day of the Lord. The Thessalonians were basically concerned that they missed the Lord's gathering and were now going to go through the time of God's wrath, the Day of the Lord.
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
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#52
This shows that you are CLUELESS about the Bible doctrine. Darby an Scofield came a lot later than Christ and His apostles. And attacking Scofield does not even help your case. Scofield has already established himself as a sound bible teacher. People could dig up your past sins and accuse you also like like you accuse Scofield.

The Second Coming cannot possibly coincide with the Resurrection/Rapture. Indeed that would be absurd. The Second Coming is preceded by the Marriage of the Lamb, therefore the Resurrection/Rapture must precede the Marriage of the Lamb. Everything must be in its proper order.
Yes you deny the truth of Gods simple words below, blinded by the teachings of John N. Darby and Adulterer C.I. Scofield, Dispensationalism

All claims of a pre-trib rapture are nothing more than the second coming, last day resurrection, only the blind believe Darby & Adulterer Scofield.

The main scripture used by supporters of the pre-trib rapture is 1 Thess 4:15-17 below, this is nothing more than the (Second Coming) (Last Day) resurrection, not a Pre-Trib rapture.

1. Is a resurrection of the believer seen in 1 Thess 4:15-17 below, 100% yes!

2. Does this resurrection take place on the (Last Day) as Jesus Christ taught below in John 6:39-40, 100% yes!

3. Is the (Last Day) the time of final judgement as Jesus Christ taught in John 12:48 below, 100% yes!

Many deny the truth of Gods words below, that are simple, clear, and very easy to understand.

(THE SECOND COMING, LAST DAY RESURRECTION)

1 Thessalonians 4:15-17KJV
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

(THE LAST DAY RESURRECTION)

John 6:39-40KJV
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

(THE LAST DAY JUDGEMENT)

John 12:48KJV
48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
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#53
[quoting from article]

"Translation History

"The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either “departure” or “departing.” They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).[[7] This supports the notion that the word truly means “departure.” In fact, Jerome’s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of A.D. 400 renders apostasia with the “word discessio, meaning ‘departure.’”[8] Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of “departure”?

"Most scholars say that no one knows the reason for the translation shift. However, a plausible theory has been put forth by Martin Butalla in his Master of Theology thesis produced at Dallas Theology Seminary in 1998.[9] It appears that the Catholic translation into English from Jerome’s Latin Vulgate known as the Rheims Bible (1576) was the first to break the translation trend. “Apostasia was revised from ‘the departure’ to ‘the Protestant Revolt,’” explains Butalla. “Revolution is the terminology still in use today when Catholicism teaches the history of the Protestant Reformation. Under this guise, apostasia would refer to a departure of Protestants from the Catholic Church.”[10] The Catholic translators appear eager to engage in polemics against the Reformation by even allowing it to impact Bible translation. By 1611, when then original version of the King James Bible came out, the translators changed the English translation tradition from “departure” to “falling away,” which implied “apostasy.” Such a change was a theological response to the Catholic notion that the Reformation was a revolt against the true church; instead, Protestants saw Catholic beliefs as “the falling away” or “the great apostasy.” This would mean that the shift in translation was not based upon research of the meaning of the original language but as a theological polemic against the false teachings of Romanism."

--Dr Thomas Ice, "The “Departure” in 2 Thessalonians 2:3", https://www.pre-trib.org/articles/all-articles/message/the-departure-in-2-thessalonians-2-3/read

[end quoting article; bold and underline mine]
Very plausible theory. There is not a lot of data but that explanation makes the best sense. Thank you again.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
23,042
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#54
Hello CV5, you knew that I would show up regarding this claim. :cool:

The word here is 'apostasia' translated as 'rebellion, apostasy, falling away, defection, revolt, departure (implying desertion), etc.

The word 'apostasia' is derived from two words 'apo - away from' and 'histemi - stand,' properly 'away from ones stand, a leaving from a previous standing. This word is used in only one other time in scripture which is found in Acts 21:21

"Now they have been informed about you, that you teach all Jews among the Gentiles apostasy from Moses, telling them not to circumcise the children nor to walk in the customs."

Therefore, based on the other synonyms of apostasy, the word 'departure' cannot be used to mean to depart up to meet Christ in the air. If the word is used, it must keep the meaning of the original Greek word to mean departure from ones stand in faith and not taking off into the wild blue yonder.

I would also point out that, 'that Day' is not referring to 'the coming of our Lord and being gathered to Him' but to 'The Day of the Lord' found in verse 2 and also as 'that Day' in verse 3. Therefore, it is 'the Day of the Lord' that will not come until the apostasy occurs and the man of lawless ness is revealed.

The reason for the Thessalonians letter to Paul, which we don't see, is because there were false teachers there claiming that the Day of the Lord, the time of God's wrath, had already come. So since the Thessalonians knew Paul's teachings, that the gathering of the church would take place prior to the Day of the Lord, they were basically asking "He Paul, there are people here claiming that the day of the Lord has come, so why haven't we been caught up first as you taught us?" Of course Paul comforts them letting them know that the proof of being in the day of the Lord would be the apostasy and the revealing of the man of lawlessness, which had not happened and has yet to happen. It is not until after the church has been removed from the earth, the apostasy will have begun and the man of lawlessness has been revealed, as proof of being in the Day of the Lord. The Thessalonians were basically concerned that they missed the Lord's gathering and were now going to go through the time of God's wrath, the Day of the Lord.
I am with TheDivineWatermark on this one my friend. I think there are enough breadcrumbs there to lead us through the forest. Tight context and original reading means a lot especially here.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
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#55
John 14 is a narrative spoken by Jesus about His Father's house, the way/truth/life, the promise of the Holy Spirit.

Jesus says He will return in these passages, but this is pre-crucifixion/death/burial/resurrection. John 14 is not a reference to the second coming of Christ or rapture, but rather Christ returning from the dead post-crucifixion.
Hi Runningman,

John 14 is synonyms with I Thess.4:16-17 and I Cor.15:51-53, with the last two being a detailed accounts of John 14:1-3

The promise is that, Jesus said that "in His Father's house are many rooms' which is referring to His resurrection and ascension to the right hand of the Father. He said that He was going to the Father's house to prepare places for the disciples and therefore all believers. The Father's house can be none other than heaven. Then He said that He would come back to get us and take us back to the Father's house, that where He is we may be also, which again would be the Father's house in heaven. Regarding this event, the Lord also told the disciples and all believers the following:

"Simon Peter asked him, "Lord, where are you going?" Jesus replied, "Where I am going, you cannot follow now, but you will follow later."

While it is true that when we die, our spirits depart and go to be in the presence of the Lord, but the scriptures above are talking about going to heaven in our immortal and glorified body just as Jesus did. Those who have died in Christ are waiting for the resurrection in heaven. And we who are still alive, are waiting for the resurrection on the earth because we will be changed immortal and glorified and will be caught up to meet Him in the air, where He will take the entire church back to the Father's house in fulfillment of His promise. Once we are there, we will stand before the Bema seat of Christ to receive rewards or loss of rewards. It's basically an awards ceremony, where all of our works will go through the fire. The works that we did with right motives and for the glory of God, will survive the fire and will result in rewards. In contrast, anything that gets burned up we will suffer loss of reward. It is important to understand that this judgment is not for sin, which God has already cast as far as the east is from the west and has already been paid for.

Another event that will take place while there in heaven will be the marriage of the Lamb, where the bride/church will receive her fine linen, white and clean and where we will enjoy the marriage feast. At the supper, Jesus told His disciples that He would not drink of the fruit of the vine until He drinks is anew with us in the kingdom of heaven. It is during the marriage supper that this will take place.
 

Kolistus

Well-known member
Feb 3, 2020
538
276
63
#56
I would believe in a pre-tribulation rapture if and only if that's what the Bible says. We have studied this topic, debated, and hashed out repeatedly on this message board.

Pre-tribulation rapture doesn't exist. Compare the texts of the Olivet Discourse in Matthew 24 & 25, Mark 13, and Luke 21.

The bottom line is there is no undoing what Matthew 24:29-31 says and what all other rapture verses confirm: a rapture occurs at the once and only second coming of Christ, at the last trumpet, immediately after the tribulation.

29Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
30And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
31And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
I can attempt to explain to you how Matthew 24:29-31 does not contradict a pre-trib rapture.

The Matthew 24:31 gathering is a gathering performed by the angels, gathering the people of Israel who are alive at the end of the tribulation to Jerusalem.. Isaiah 27:13 as a reference point.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#57
John 14 is a narrative spoken by Jesus about His Father's house, the way/truth/life, the promise of the Holy Spirit.

Jesus says He will return in these passages, but this is pre-crucifixion/death/burial/resurrection. John 14 is not a reference to the second coming of Christ or rapture, but rather Christ returning from the dead post-crucifixion.
Jesus said

“Do not let your hearts be troubled. You believe in God; believe also in me. 2 My Father’s house has many rooms; if that were not so, would I have told you that I am going there to prepare a place for you? 3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you( paralambanō )to be with me that you also may be where I am. 4 You know the way to the place where I am going.”

Jesus was speaking of a place that was prepared and He said if it were NOT SO I would not have told you. Jesus was very Clear HE was going to and coming back for. Then He left and is coming back again. But before that happens Gods wrath will be poured out on the Earth. I am not subject to wrath I will be Taken OUT OF the way

Matthew 24:27-28 speaks of this. 27 For as the lightning comes from the east and flashes to the west, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be. 28 For wherever the carcass is, there the eagles will be gathered together.
 
Mar 4, 2020
8,614
3,691
113
#58
Hi Runningman,

John 14 is synonyms with I Thess.4:16-17 and I Cor.15:51-53, with the last two being a detailed accounts of John 14:1-3

The promise is that, Jesus said that "in His Father's house are many rooms' which is referring to His resurrection and ascension to the right hand of the Father. He said that He was going to the Father's house to prepare places for the disciples and therefore all believers. The Father's house can be none other than heaven. Then He said that He would come back to get us and take us back to the Father's house, that where He is we may be also, which again would be the Father's house in heaven. Regarding this event, the Lord also told the disciples and all believers the following:

"Simon Peter asked him, "Lord, where are you going?" Jesus replied, "Where I am going, you cannot follow now, but you will follow later."

While it is true that when we die, our spirits depart and go to be in the presence of the Lord, but the scriptures above are talking about going to heaven in our immortal and glorified body just as Jesus did. Those who have died in Christ are waiting for the resurrection in heaven. And we who are still alive, are waiting for the resurrection on the earth because we will be changed immortal and glorified and will be caught up to meet Him in the air, where He will take the entire church back to the Father's house in fulfillment of His promise. Once we are there, we will stand before the Bema seat of Christ to receive rewards or loss of rewards. It's basically an awards ceremony, where all of our works will go through the fire. The works that we did with right motives and for the glory of God, will survive the fire and will result in rewards. In contrast, anything that gets burned up we will suffer loss of reward. It is important to understand that this judgment is not for sin, which God has already cast as far as the east is from the west and has already been paid for.

Another event that will take place while there in heaven will be the marriage of the Lamb, where the bride/church will receive her fine linen, white and clean and where we will enjoy the marriage feast. At the supper, Jesus told His disciples that He would not drink of the fruit of the vine until He drinks is anew with us in the kingdom of heaven. It is during the marriage supper that this will take place.
Maybe Jesus prepared a place for His disciples in His Father's house in between death and resurrection? Or maybe He will do it post ascension?

It doesn't say, but one doesn't prevent the other from happening. Jesus can still rise from the dead and come back to His 12 disciples and still ascend to heaven later and prepare a place for Christians. These verse in John 14 aren't 100% crystal clear on what order this is happening in.

Chapter 14 also mentions the promise of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit was guaranteed as a promise for believers after the ascension of Christ to heaven per john 16:7.

The bottom line is that Jesus isn't really talking about His second coming on the clouds with His angels to gather His elect and strike down His enemies before judgment day in John 14 so it doesn't hold any weight in the rapture doctrine as far as I can tell.
 
Mar 4, 2020
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#59
I can attempt to explain to you how Matthew 24:29-31 does not contradict a pre-trib rapture.

The Matthew 24:31 gathering is a gathering performed by the angels, gathering the people of Israel who are alive at the end of the tribulation to Jerusalem.. Isaiah 27:13 as a reference point.
I think the rapture is like the gathering of the wheat and tares. Revelation 14 coincides well with the gathering done by angels in Matthew 24. Notice this gathering event occurs directly before the end. After the gathering it's judgment time.

Why do you say it's a gathering of only the people of Israel? Do you think "the elect" are only Jews or are they Christians? I think the elect are Christians and what remains of the of the Jews, exactly 144,000 Jews, at the time of Jesus' return.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
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#60
I am with TheDivineWatermark on this one my friend. I think there are enough breadcrumbs there to lead us through the forest. Tight context and original reading means a lot especially here.
There is just no way you can use the word 'apostasia' translated as 'departure' to mean to fly up into the air, no matter how hard you try.

Believe me, I wanted to know what this scripture as saying for myself. And so I studied it upside down, inside out and ever which way, until the Spirit revealed it to me. It simply understand the difference between the phrases

Concerning the coming of our Lord and our being gathered to Him (removal of the church from the earth)

vs.

The Day of the Lord (the time of God's wrath)

Most people read write over it without even considering it. It is because the truth of this matter has not been revealed to them, that they adopt these teachings such as this one, which I have encountered and contended against this for many years. I have never been one to be satisfied with the status quo. It has to make sense to me. Below is the definition of the word 'apastasia'

Strong's Concordance
apostasia: defection, revolt
Original Word: ἀποστασία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: apostasia
Phonetic Spelling: (ap-os-tas-ee'-ah)
Definition: defection, revolt
Usage: defection, apostasy, revolt.

HELPS Word-studies
646
apostasía (from 868 /aphístēmi, "leave, depart," which is derived from 575 /apó, "away from" and 2476 /histémi, "stand") – properly, departure (implying desertion); apostasy – literally, "a leaving, from a previous standing."

To believe that the translated word 'departure' to mean to depart up into the air, is just ignoring the meaning of the original Greek word in order settle for this false interpretation. As you can see for yourself, the work 'departure' would have retain the meaning of desertion from ones stand in faith.

If the Holy Spirit wanted to convey the meaning of departing up into the air to meet the Lord, He would have used the same word 'harpadzo' which is used in I Thess.4:16 to be 'caught up' or when Paul said that he was 'caught up' to the third heaven, or when the male child is 'caught up' to God's throne and also when Philip was caught away from the Eunuch by the Spirit and found in another city. But, you cannot honestly expect the word 'apostasia' translated as 'departure' to mean to depart up into the air to meet the Lord. And as I demostrated to you, the only other place that the word 'apostasia' is used, is in Acts 21:21 which is used to mean to depart from the teachings of Moses.