Easter Celebration, Is It Biblical?

[Truth7t7]

The Lord thought it was so important to show what Christ does for us He had thousands of people play out a symbolic earthly acting out of Christ so we understand. Scripture devotes many verses to this explanation, and tells us to always celebrate it. Man has so objected to doing that, saying when Christ fulfilled it all that Christ put a stop to the celebration. Christ told us that He didn't do that, Christ backed up and even explained all His Father did for us.

We even make light of Passover by using ham as the accepted Easter feast, when in times past the Lord had people not consider ham food as pigs were designed to eat garbage and it symbolized feeding garbage to the mind.

I live in an assisted living facility, and it is now decorated with rabbits, ladies in new hats and eggs---in this facility's mind Christ has nothing to do with Easter, rabbits, eggs and new hats take the place of Christ.

The fact is, the Easter rabbits & eggs, predate christianity and are symbols of fertility in Pagan worship

Christianity hung the resurrection on this time that follows the vernal equinox, full moon, and sunday following

Same goes for Dec 25th Christmas, that is founded in the Pagan Roman Saturnalia, and winter solstice in the rebirth of the sun, wine, women, and song, Baccus the Roman god of indulgence.

January 1st, New Years Day, in commemoration to the Roman god of new beginnings (Janus) with the month named in this gods honor.

 

[Truth7t7]

11:26 does not ignore the resurrection, otherwise, Christ comes from the dead for us which would contradict Paul's message in 1 Cor. 15. Another ordinance which the water baptism reflects the dbr.

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following

The believer is instructed to remember the Lord's (Death) not his birth or resurrection, (Simple)

1 Corinthians 11:23-26KJV
23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
25 After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

 

[posthuman]

It just so happened that the one who invented English Passover for the Greek "pascha" has the same meaning as "Easter". The Hebrew pesach is left in the Greek as pascha, Latinized to have it the same as the Greek, French "pacques", Italian "pasqua" and Durch "pasen". Early English Translation of Wycliffe left it untranslated and used the word "pask or paske" not until Tyndale who used the Greek "pascha" with the same meaning as "Passover" and "Easter".

yup Luther & then Tyndale both replaced 'Pascha' with an imagined word 'oster' and variations on it, even in the OT, despite what the words of scripture in their original languages actually said. it is not a coincidence that Jews were being forcibly expelled wholesale from countries all over Europe in this era, something Luther himself wrote some famous books encouraging - tho he also wrote about wishing the Catholic church would be more gentle while they persecuted them.

only German Bibles had anything other than a variant of Pascha ((tho not the earliest German Bibles)), until English translations began being made, following the tradition of Luther & Tyndale before them adopting this made-up-name in Acts 12 instead of the actual word referring to the feast given in Moses' law.

and now the imaginary word "Easter" appears only in English and German translations of scripture -- every other language on earth is faithful in the matter of Pascha.

 

[John146]

According to the New Unger’s Bible Dictionary: “The word Easter is of Saxon origin, Eastra, the goddess of spring, in whose honour sacrifices were offered about Passover time each year. By the eighth century Anglo–Saxons had adopted the name to designate the celebration of Christ’s resurrection.

Brother, for years I had the same view as you, FYI.

Ok, the fact that the pagan goddess was named Eoestre or Eastre or some say Ishtar or Astarte (all different gods and goddesses), but it’s clear the name is not Easter. The KJV translators knew how to spell English words correctly. There is no way that they really meant to say Eostre instead of Easter.

If the King James Bible had read: "intending after Ishtar" or "intending after Eoestre", you might have a case for your argument. But it clearly does not read that way. It says: "intending after EASTER to bring him forth to the people."

Let's look at it from the Greek side of things. The Greek word used here is clearly paska. There is NO way on God's green earth that the Greek word paska can possibly mean anything remotely like "Eoestre" or "Ishtar". The King James Bible translators knew exactly what this word means and it means EASTER, particularly when it applies to the yearly celebration of the Resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ, and that is what they wrote. Another major problem with this view is that Herod was an Edomite and probably a Roman citizen, but by no stretch of the imagination was he an Anglo-Saxon.

 

[posthuman]

The fact that John writes, "Jews Pascha" indicates that there was a need to qualify the word Pascha for the immediate audience of John's Gospel. Such a phrase would be redundant unless there were already a distinction between a Jew's Pascha and another Pascha. Apparently within the first century, Christians had already appropriated the word Pascha to refer to the Christian celebration of the resurrection.

it differentiates between the day of Passover and the 8 day long Passover feast that includes the days of unleavened bread & culminates in the day of Firstfruits -- which is the day Christ rose.

it's Firstfruits that marks His resurrection, Passover His death. so you've got the imaginary word's definition wrong if you put it for Pascha; you should be arguing that "Oster" means "Good Friday ((really Wednesday))"

 

[posthuman]

It says: "intending after EASTER to bring him forth to the people."

it says intending after PASCHA

exactly the same word all over Exodus & Leviticus and everywhere else in the Bible. it has exactly one meaning, Passover.

there is no justifiable reason to translate it as Passover 150 times and then suddenly decide to put the new imagined word oster in one place. it is completely an interpretive choice to ignore the actual text that took place before the KJV and the KJV simply adopted. the church was by that time deeply invested in separating themselves from any connection to Judaism.

why do we have egg hunts instead of eating a lamb with our shoes on and our cloak tucked into our belt, ready to travel?

 

[Truth7t7]

Brother, for years I had the same view as you, FYI.

Ok, the fact that the pagan goddess was named Eoestre or Eastre or some say Ishtar or Astarte (all different gods and goddesses), but it’s clear the name is not Easter. The KJV translators knew how to spell English words correctly. There is no way that they really meant to say Eostre instead of Easter.

If the King James Bible had read: "intending after Ishtar" or "intending after Eoestre", you might have a case for your argument. But it clearly does not read that way. It says: "intending after EASTER to bring him forth to the people."

Let's look at it from the Greek side of things. The Greek word used here is clearly paska. There is NO way on God's green earth that the Greek word paska can possibly mean anything remotely like "Eoestre" or "Ishtar". The King James Bible translators knew exactly what this word means and it means EASTER, particularly when it applies to the yearly celebration of the Resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ, and that is what they wrote. Another major problem with this view is that Herod was an Edomite and probably a Roman citizen, but by no stretch of the imagination was he an Anglo-Saxon.

Were not talking about the KJV, were talking about a word (Easter) that predates 1611 and the KJV translation.

According to the New Unger’s Bible Dictionary: “The word Easter is of Saxon origin, Eastra, the goddess of spring, in whose honour sacrifices were offered about Passover time each year. By the eighth century Anglo–Saxons had adopted the name to designate the celebration of Christ’s resurrection.

 

[John146]

exactly the same word all over Exodus & Leviticus and everywhere else in the Bible. it has exactly one meaning, Passover.

One exception, after the cross the Passover had been fulfilled so the translators rightly saw this change. Christ is our Passover. The passover was a type of the true lamb of God who delivers His people out of the bondage of sin. The Holy Ghost is speaking through the Gentile Christian named Luke here in Acts 12, and he is referring to this event as the Christian Paska, which became known in English as Easter.

He calleth those things which be not, as though they were.

 

[John146]

Were not talking about the KJV, were talking about a word (Easter) that predates 1611 and the KJV translation.

According to the New Unger’s Bible Dictionary: “The word Easter is of Saxon origin, Eastra, the goddess of spring, in whose honour sacrifices were offered about Passover time each year. By the eighth century Anglo–Saxons had adopted the name to designate the celebration of Christ’s resurrection.

So, we’re going with this dictionary as the end of all truth? Why would Rome celebrate an Anglo Saxon god?

Again, Easter and Eastra are not the same, not spelled the same.

 

[Truth7t7]

So, we’re going with this dictionary as the end of all truth? Why would Rome celebrate an Anglo Saxon god?

Again, Easter and Eastra are not the same, not spelled the same.

Once Again, And Again, And Again

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following called (Easter) that many churches follow.

The believer is instructed by (JESUS CHRIST) to remember his (Death) not his birth or resurrection, (Simple)

(This Do In Remembrance Of Me)

1 Corinthians 11:23-26KJV
23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
25 After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

 

[posthuman]

One exception, after the cross the Passover had been fulfilled so the translators rightly saw this change. Christ is our Passover. The passover was a type of the true lamb of God who delivers His people out of the bondage of sin. The Holy Ghost is speaking through the Gentile Christian named Luke here in Acts 12, and he is referring to this event as the Christian Paska, which became known in English as Easter.

then why didn't they similarly mistranslate Pascha in 1 Corinthians, having Paul say "Christ our Easter lamb" ?
Paul is talking about the death, burial and resurrection of Christ there, not about the exodus and the slaying of the firstborn sons. but he still calls it Pascha, just like Luke called Pascha "Pascha" in Acts. only a thousand years later did some people start revising the text with this new word. why? is it to be assumed we are too stupid to recognize the connection to the typology in the feasts and the fulfillment in the Lord, even after reading the 4 gospels? so we have to invent new words?

it remains and will remain a fact that the source text the KJV translators used all say "PASCHA" -- in fact every source text, everywhere, ever, even the ones they had no knowledge of -- and that they changed the text in Acts 12, unfaithful to what they were translating, keeping a recent human tradition begun in the anti-semitic atmosphere of medieval Europe. it has nothing at all to do with literal translation and everything to do with removing the association with the Jewish feast day.

 

[John146]

Once Again, And Again, And Again

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following called (Easter) that many churches follow.

The believer is instructed by (JESUS CHRIST) to remember his (Death) not his birth or resurrection, (Simple)

(This Do In Remembrance Of Me)

1 Corinthians 11:23-26KJV
23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
25 After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

Well, if God’s physical people Israel could celebrate the Passover, then God’s spiritual people can celebrate our Passover Lamb.

 

[John146]

then why didn't they similarly mistranslate Pascha in 1 Corinthians, having Paul say "Christ our Easter lamb" ?

So we could see that Passover was no longer at play after the resurrection.

 

[John146]

then why didn't they similarly mistranslate Pascha in 1 Corinthians, having Paul say "Christ our Easter lamb" ?
Paul is talking about the death, burial and resurrection of Christ there, not about the exodus and the slaying of the firstborn sons. but he still calls it Pascha, just like Luke called Pascha "Pascha" in Acts. only a thousand years later did some people start revising the text with this new word. why? is it to be assumed we are too stupid to recognize the connection to the typology in the feasts and the fulfillment in the Lord, even after reading the 4 gospels? so we have to invent new words?

it remains and will remain a fact that the source text the KJV translators used all say "PASCHA" -- in fact every source text, everywhere, ever, even the ones they had no knowledge of -- and that they changed the text in Acts 12, unfaithful to what they were translating, keeping a recent human tradition begun in the anti-semitic atmosphere of medieval Europe. it has nothing at all to do with literal translation and everything to do with removing the association with the Jewish feast day.

Christians had obviously been celebrating Easter before 150 A.D. or so, since Christian leaders met to discuss its proper date and not the fact of its observance. God is now calling the passover EASTER because of its new significance. He calleth those things which be not, as though they were.

Has He not done this before in His word? Genesis 14:14 tells us that Abraham pursued those who had taken Lot captive unto Dan. There was not even a tribe of Israel called Dan let alone a city named after them at this time. But God knew there would be.

In Genesis 21:14, 21, God calls the name of a place Beersheba before it is so named. In Isaiah 44:28 and 45:1, God speaks of Cyrus, my shepherd, his anointed "whose right hand I have holden, to subdue nations before him", as though he already existed, yet Cyrus would not be born till many years later.

 

[Truth7t7]

Well, if God’s physical people Israel could celebrate the Passover, then God’s spiritual people can celebrate our Passover Lamb.

I Agree 100%

Celebrate The Passover Lambs "Death" As Instructed Below, Not His Birth Or Resurrection, Simple

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following called (Easter) that many churches follow.

The believer is instructed by (JESUS CHRIST) to remember his (Death) not his birth or resurrection, (Simple)

(This Do In Remembrance Of Me)

1 Corinthians 11:23-26KJV
23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
25 After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

 

[John146]

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following called (Easter) that many churches follow.

No place in Scripture is Easter referred to as the vernal equinox, full moon, or the Sunday following Easter. The KJV equates it to the New Testament Passover.

 

[Truth7t7]

No place in Scripture is Easter referred to as the vernal equinox, full moon, or the Sunday following Easter. The KJV equates it to the New Testament Passover.

Don't play ignorant John, a clear explanation is given below

Did this Easter Sunday on (April 4th 2021) in the USA follow the vernal equinox on Mar 20th and full moon this year being Mar 30th?

100% yes, and Easter Is always the first Sunday following this full moon

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following called (Easter) that many churches follow.

 

[Dino246]

No place in scripture is the believer instructed to follow the vernal equinox, full moon, and the sunday following called (Easter) that many churches follow.

In no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to post the same thing repeatedly.

In no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to be boorish, self-righteous, and demeaning of others.

In no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to put all his posts in bold-face type so as to appear to be yelling all the time.

For that matter, in no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to use a computer or the internet.

Yet you do them all while telling everyone over and over and over and over and OVER that "No place (sic) in scripture is the believer instructed to celebrate the resurrection."

That makes you a hypocrite.

 

[Truth7t7]

In no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to post the same thing repeatedly.

In no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to be boorish, self-righteous, and demeaning of others.

In no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to put all his posts in bold-face type so as to appear to be yelling all the time.

For that matter, in no place in Scripture is the believer instructed to use a computer or the internet.

Yet you do them all while telling everyone over and over and over and over and OVER that "No place (sic) in scripture is the believer instructed to celebrate the resurrection."

That makes you a hypocrite.

Your claim of demeaning is false, and your opinion

As long as you post false claims, I will respond with Gods truth!

If you are getting tired of God's truth, then stop the false claims

 

[Blik]

The fact is, the Easter rabbits & eggs, predate christianity and are symbols of fertility in Pagan worship

Christianity hung the resurrection on this time that follows the vernal equinox, full moon, and sunday following

Same goes for Dec 25th Christmas, that is founded in the Pagan Roman Saturnalia, and winter solstice in the rebirth of the sun, wine, women, and song, Baccus the Roman god of indulgence.

January 1st, New Years Day, in commemoration to the Roman god of new beginnings (Janus) with the month named in this gods honor.

The facility I live in is deep in paganism, and they don't even know it. They live in such a world of the flesh that they aren't even aware that they have a soul given to them by the Lord. We help them live in this unreal way when we serve pig at our potluck dinners at Easter, decorate with Easter Baskets, and have Easter Egg Hunts for church children.