MY apologies.
The Bible does not say in the specific words....."Women can not be Pastors".
In the qualifications to be a Pastors.....Paul said "that if a MAN desires to be a Bishop HE must be........."!
To me, that is self explanatory and the actual words that a woman can not be a bishop is not needed.
Again.....please be CORRECT in your accusations......I have NEVER claimed to be a theologian any more than you have claimed to be a corrective advisor of what is said.
I am nothing but an old country boy from Alabama who did NOTHING but post the EXACT words from the Bible. Go back and see from the 1st post in this thread if I said I was anything other that what I just said.
I simply read the Bible. Believe it and accept it.
Again, your translation is wrong. There are no word "man" or "he" in 1 Tim 3:1 in Greek. And by Koine Greek, I mean all 5 Koine Greek versions listed on Biblegateway.com!
"Here is a trustworthy saying: Whoever aspires to be an overseer desires a noble task." 1 Tim 3:1 NIV
"Πιστὸς ὁ λόγος· εἴ τις ἐπισκοπῆς ὀρέγεται, καλοῦ ἔργου ἐπιθυμεῖ." 1Tim 3:1 Koine Greek SBL
Man is άνδρες or sometimes του ανθρώποs although anthropos usually means humankind or humans, humanity these days, (because it includes men and women!) He, on the other hand, is αὐτός or autos.
You don't need to read Greek to see that andres, autos & not even anthropos, are found in this verse. More adding of words by the KJV and some modern versions?? I think so! It is totally gender neutral verse! So we need to throw this verse out as a proof text, because it adds "men" and "he," pwhere there are none of those words in Koine Greek! Let's look at from an interlinear perspective:
Πιστὸς ὁ λόγος·
Trustworthy [is] The Word
εἴ τις ἐπισκοπῆς
If anyone aspires to [being]
ὀρέγεται, καλοῦ ἔργου ἐπιθυμεῖ."
An overseer, a good work [is] desired!
So, no more nonsense about "men and he," being in that verse! Sorry, but sometimes just reading the Bible in English does NOT give you the right answer, but the wrong one!
Further, "of one wife, a husband" is obviously a specific instruction that men should not be polygamists!
"μιᾶς γυναικὸς ἄνδρα," 1 Tim 3:2
Of one woman a husband.
Or inverting it to make sense in English "A husband of one wife" as opposed to "a husband of many women/wives!"
Further, later in this chapter, this is found in verses 3:8-10:
Διακόνους (accusative masculine plural) which means "deacons." It is not male as in referring to men only, but rather it is masculine in gender. It can be used for a woman or a man!
(Compare Romans 16:1)
"Συνίστημι δὲ ὑμῖν Φοίβην τὴν ἀδελφὴν ἡμῶν, οὖσαν καὶ διάκονον τῆς ἐκκλησίας τῆς ἐν Κεγχρεαῖς," Romans 16:1 Koine Greek SBL
Here Φοίβην or Phoebe is an accusative noun (meaning it is an object), and women are referred to by the exact same word as in 1 Tim 3:1, which is διάκονον τῆς ἐκκλησίας or deacon of the church in Cenchrea. Plus, only a few words before she is called "a deacon of the church Cenchrea" Paul refers to her as "ἀδελφὴν ἡμῶν," Phoebe, our sister and also a deacon of the church in Cenchrea." Very specific, she a deacon at a specific church, while acknowledging she is "our sister" [in Christ].
Therefore, she is directly revealed as a deacon, or leader in a specific church, by Paul.
Finally, returning to 1 Tim 3:11-12,
Paul discusses what the necessary qualifications are for a woman deacon!
Paul used γυναῖκας in verses 8& 11, which could be women, but more likely is a referral to women who are deaconesses. Why do I think it is deaconesses? For one thing, Phoebe has been called a leader or deacon in Romans 16:1, but also 1 Tim 3:10 says, διακονείτωσαν, which is in the Imperative, (a command) to "Let them serve as deacons!" The men must allow the women who fulfill the other qualities (respectable, not double-tongued, not drinking wine too much, respectable, etc.) become deacons of the church. In other words, female leadership! Women in authority!
Again, if you want to discuss theology, take of couple of years each of seminary level Greek & Hebrew! English is simply inferior when it comes to making good doctrine! And when trying to prove a point that was added 1500 years after the earliest manuscripts were written!!