In Aramaic, a word to identify God the Most High is 'abba', meaning father. Would this suggest God is the father of all, not Jesus solely?
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It's an interesting question. God is the Creator, and it seems that we cannot escape this fact. On this alone, one could easily seem to argue that God is, in fact, the Father of all. But . . . the Adamic Curse separates us from the Lord, and our new Father is the Devil.
Jews claim God to be their Father. That does not mean that God is Father of all mankind. Lord Jesus told the pharisees that their father was the devil. Unless an individual is born of God (i.e. born again) God is not their father. Some of the research I've done suggests that "abba" is the term used by an obedient son, such as how Isaac addressed Abraham on the mount of sacrifice.
Rev 2:9 I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan.
People who believe should read in the Word exactly what a true Jew is. Try by starting in Romans.
People who believe should read in the Word exactly what a true Jew is. Try by starting in Romans.
Yes. When Jesus referred to the Father, he would use the term 'abba'. That doesn't mean God is his literal father in the same respect that Joseph was his father.
The the word 'Abba' being used to refer to the Abrahamic God predates the birth of Jesus.
These verses came to mind.
Hebrews 12:5 And ye have forgotten the exhortation which speaketh unto you as unto children, My son, despise not thou the chastening of the Lord, nor faint when thou art rebuked of him:
6 For whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth, and scourgeth every son whom he receiveth.
7 If ye endure chastening, God dealeth with you as with sons; for what son is he whom the father chasteneth not?
8 But if ye be without chastisement, whereof all are partakers, then are ye bastards, and not sons.
9 Furthermore we have had fathers of our flesh which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto the Father of spirits, and live?
10 For they verily for a few days chastened us after their own pleasure; but he for our profit, that we might be partakers of his holiness.
One thing I also notice, when God spoke to the Jews in the OT, he didn't address them the same way he addresses us in the NT. In the NT, he calls us "beloved," "children," "dear children," "little children," etc. He also called Daniel and his 3 companions "children."
Hebrews 12:5 And ye have forgotten the exhortation which speaketh unto you as unto children, My son, despise not thou the chastening of the Lord, nor faint when thou art rebuked of him:
6 For whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth, and scourgeth every son whom he receiveth.
7 If ye endure chastening, God dealeth with you as with sons; for what son is he whom the father chasteneth not?
8 But if ye be without chastisement, whereof all are partakers, then are ye bastards, and not sons.
9 Furthermore we have had fathers of our flesh which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto the Father of spirits, and live?
10 For they verily for a few days chastened us after their own pleasure; but he for our profit, that we might be partakers of his holiness.
One thing I also notice, when God spoke to the Jews in the OT, he didn't address them the same way he addresses us in the NT. In the NT, he calls us "beloved," "children," "dear children," "little children," etc. He also called Daniel and his 3 companions "children."
And believers predating the birth of Jesus were adopted,
For I could wish that I myself were cursed and cut off from Christ for the sake of my people, those of my own race,
the people of Israel. Theirs is the adoption to sonship;.....Rom.9:3-4
I don't think so. Well we're talking about With Christ every word He speaks there is something to it behind it. Its written for God so loved the world He gave His only begotten son of God uniquely born or one-of-a-kind birth. He said He had to finish the Fathers work. Thinking about this.. Christ here everything was the Father first. What ever we ask the Father in Jesus name. We know His throne is at the right hand of the Father. We know "let us create man in our image". That get me thinking our image? Gods a spirit.. Christ then was not flesh was He
.. I don't know the more I think about it the more lost I get haha. He's man his our friend, brother, savior our God. He and the Father are one and thats not just a nice thought.. they are two yet just one. Then this verse comes to mind "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen doth gather her brood under her wings, and ye would not!" Did ya catch what He said? "how often would I have gathered they children together" I? Or God? The same
Then Isa what a 41:10? Where is Christ seated? God said in Isa 41:10 "I will uphold thee with the right hand of my righteousness." Things that come to mine. Been married together for about 40 years and I STILL don't fully understand my wife haha and were talking about GOD Father ABBA. It was so wonderful awesome to see that word become new when watching little Jewish kids calling their father "ABBA". Great question thank you
Except when Jesus says, "My Father." Then he is referring to God as his Father in a unique way, as God the Father to God the Son.
"Our Father" is more inclusive.
Typically it would be used by
Jew s as ' our ' Father . Hence the 'Lords prayer ' ,which is a Jewish prayer which has been hijacked by the church . I see ' Abba ' ( daddy ) as more intimate .