You asked, if it were possible that sin was forgiven before it was committed? From the legal point of view - YES. From a practical point of view - NO. We commit sins and are told to seek forgiveness for those sins with our Intercessor, Jesus Christ. However, from the Father's point of view, He does not see them. He only sees the completed work of Jesus Christ, for the Elect. Thus, the Father sees the Elect through His Son's Redemptive work. To the Father - the Elect are and shall ever be, Justified and Righteous because He only sees them in His Son. However, that work does not start at the Cross, from a legal point of view, indeed, it ends at the Cross.
we seem to come from different perspectives on certain important doctrine but agree on others. So, it is a little difficult sometimes to find a pathway that will allow us to communicate effectively.
Anyway, since our dialoguing has the potential to drag into it the entire Bible, therefore, rather than responding
to you point by point, I thought a better approach to include the verses that form the basis of my point of view, (and I'll do my best to keep it as brief and direct as possible) after which, I'd be interested to hear yours (or anyone's).
Primarily, my understanding of the cause of spiritual transgressions, with the how, when and why of God's judgement and forgiveness rests upon several verses:
[Rom 5:19-20 KJV]
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
[Rom 5:13-14 KJV]
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
[Rom 2:14-15 KJV]
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and [their] thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another
So, I believe the above informs of several important doctrine:
1) That God established a direct linkage between Adam and Christ: Adam, who brought spiritual judgement; Christ who brought spiritual forgiveness made necessary by Adam.
2) That Christ's came specifically to overturn Adam's disobedience, its fruits, and it effects.
3) That by Adam's "disobedience" (notice the word used is "disobedience" not sin at this point- the disobedience of God's command to him), he had MADE many into sinners -- people who not only had not yet sinned, but who also did not even exist at the time of Adam's disobedience : yet before birth they already were sinners, but not because of themselves.
4) Adam became the testator of the Old Testament as Christ is of the New Testament. As testator, and as God had so warned him, he died spiritually immediately upon eating of the tree -- the death of a testator being a prerequisite for the bringing in of a testament.
5) The inheritance bequeathed to those who are beneficiaries of the Old Testament (which we all were at one time), is law. As verse 20 informs "law entered"; the result of law is sin; the result of sin is death.
6) That because of Adam's "disobedience" , the law whose purpose is to assess and identify offence (sin), caused sin to abound
7) That by his disobedience, Adam and Eve also both became the victims (along with all mankind) of the law they brought into being
Additionally, other verses confirm this:
[1Co 15:55-57 KJV]
55 O death, where [is] thy sting? O grave, where [is] thy victory?
56 The sting of death [is] sin; and the strength of sin [is] the law.
57 But thanks [be] to God, which giveth us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.
So, according to the above, if death's sting is sin, and sin's strength is the law,
then the victory of verse 57 must be that of Christ's removal of the law from over the elect.
We can see that it traces back to Adam's and Eve's transgression of God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.
Therefore, taking the liberty to answer my own question if I may, as I do not believe spiritual sin itself can be directly forgiven in advance of it being committed, I do find however, that the law which caused spiritual sin to exist has been removed by Christ, and by that, sin's judgement; that is, if that which levied sin is destroyed, then destroyed also is sin's assessment and penalty.
[Rom 7:4-6 KJV]
4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, [even] to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.
5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not [in] the oldness of the letter.
[Rom 7:8 KJV]
8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin [was] dead.
So, as this post isn't intended in any way to be a fully comprehensive explanation of all aspects of being made righteous but only some of the more important higher level doctrine as I understand them , I'm sure that you and others will be able to find areas not addressed or areas of disagreement, which I would be happy to explain or explore further.
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