How to defend the doctrine of the Holy Trinity

[CS1]

I like the way the kjv puts it.

2Ti 3:16, All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17, That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

the word "perfect means= Complete lacking nothing to live a life of faith and righteousness. it is not meaning we know all about God.

 

[justbyfaith]

the word "perfect means= Complete lacking nothing to live a life of faith and righteousness. it is not meaning we know all about God.

I find that it is a bane on Christianity that people always try to re-define words to fit doctrine that their itching ears want to hear.

I would contend that perfect means "perfect".

 

[LactoseIntolerant]

Yes, my doctrine is from the Bible; and I am a Bible-believing Christian.

Then conform your beliefs to the Scriptures. I leave the last words to you. You have a good one.

 

[CS1]

I find that it is a bane on Christianity that people always try to re-define words to fit doctrine that their itching ears want to hear.

I would contend that perfect means "perfect".

LOL you can contend all you want. Does plucking out your eye mean to pluck out your eye?

the word Perfect means complete from the word in the Hebrew tāmîm in context to 2tim3:17 in the greek thew word means to be

1. fitted
2. Complete.

to properly interpret we must say what the text says and stay with the context of the test and use other text to support the application. Which is a normative "perfect" in Hebrew and Greek means Complete when speaking of man if used in context.

 

[justbyfaith]

Then conform your beliefs to the Scriptures. I leave the last words to you. You have a good one.

My beliefs are conformed to the holy scriptures.

If you want to have another word, by all means say on...

 

[CS1]

My beliefs are conformed to the holy scriptures.

If you want to have another word, by all means say on...

FYI many of us also get our belief from the Word of God you are not the exception LOL

 

[justbyfaith]

Does plucking out your eye mean to pluck out your eye?

Yes.

the word Perfect means complete

And, the word "complete" therefore means "perfect".

Consider.

Col 2:10, And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

Here, not only does "complete" mean "perfect"; but it is accurately translated as "complete";

Whereas, when we see the word "perfect" in holy scripture (the kjv), it is accurately translated as "perfect' and not as "complete".

If it were meant to be translated as "complete" it would not be translated as "perfect"...it would be translated as "complete" as in the case of Colossians 2:10.

And yet, if "perfect" means "complete", the "complete" means "perfect" even as we read it in Colossians 2:10.

 

[justbyfaith]

FYI many of us also get our belief from the Word of God you are not the exception LOL

I'm not sure how you might have gotten from my statement that I believe that I am the only person who gets his belief from the Bible.

I'm sure that there are many people who conform their belief to the Bible rather than conforming the Bible to their beliefs...while I am certain that there are also many who do.

 

[CS1]

Yes.



And, the word "complete" therefore means "perfect".

Consider.

Col 2:10, And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

Here, not only does "complete" mean "perfect"; but it is accurately translated as "complete";

Whereas, when we see the word "perfect" in holy scripture (the kjv), it is accurately translated as "perfect' and not as "complete".

If it were meant to be translated as "complete" it would not be translated as "perfect"...it would be translated as "complete" as in the case of Colossians 2:10.

And yet, if "perfect" means "complete", the "complete" means "perfect" even as we read it in Colossians 2:10.

Context, Context 2tim 3:17 Ok,

 

[justbyfaith]

LOL you can contend all you want. Does plucking out your eye mean to pluck out your eye?

the word Perfect means complete from the word in the Hebrew tāmîm in context to 2tim3:17 in the greek thew word means to be

1. fitted
2. Complete.

to properly interpret we must say what the text says and stay with the context of the test and use other text to support the application. Which is a normative "perfect" in Hebrew and Greek means Complete when speaking of man if used in context.

The Greek "artios" (I am uncertain where you have a Hebrew translation of NT scriptures).

Transliteration
artios (Key)
Pronunciation
ar'-tee-os

Part of Speech
adjective
Root Word (Etymology)
From ἄρτι (G737)
Greek Inflections of ἄρτιος [?]
mGNT
1x in 1 unique form(s) TR
1x in 1 unique form(s) LXX
1x in 1 unique form(s)
ἄρτιος — 1x
Dictionary Aids
Vine's Expository Dictionary: View Entry
TDNT Reference: 1:475,80
KJV Translation Count — Total: 1x
The KJV translates Strong's G739 in the following manner: perfect (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

1. fitted
2. complete, perfect
   1. having reference apparently to "special aptitude for given uses"

Strong’s Definitions [?](Strong’s Definitions Legend)
ἄρτιος ártios, ar'-tee-os; from G737; fresh, i.e. (by implication) complete:—perfect.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon [?](Jump to Scripture Index)
STRONGS NT 739: ἄρτιος
ἄρτιος, -α, -ον, (ΑΡΩ to fit, [cf. Curtius, § 488]);
1. fitted.
2. complete, perfect, [having reference apparently to 'special aptitude for given uses']; so 2 Timothy 3:17 [cf. Ellicott at the passage; Trench, § xxii.]. (In Greek writings from Homer down.)

 

[CS1]

I'm not sure how you might have gotten from my statement that I believe that I am the only person who gets his belief from the Bible.

I'm sure that there are many people who conform their belief to the Bible rather than conforming the Bible to their beliefs...while I am certain that there are also many who do.

Most of the time when someone responds to a point and the persons comments is:

" My beliefs are conformed to the holy scriptures. If you want to have another word, by all means say on..."

The implication is just that. You are suggesting one is not like you because you made a point to say what you are doing at the expense of one, you think is not doing that. IF you did not mean it that why would you assume one thought you were not a person who gets his belief from the Holy Scriptures?

 

[CS1]

The Greek "artios" (I am uncertain where you have a Hebrew translation of NT scriptures).

Transliteration
artios (Key)
Pronunciation
ar'-tee-os

Part of Speech
adjective
Root Word (Etymology)
From ἄρτι (G737)
Greek Inflections of ἄρτιος [?]
mGNT
1x in 1 unique form(s) TR
1x in 1 unique form(s) LXX
1x in 1 unique form(s)
ἄρτιος — 1x
Dictionary Aids
Vine's Expository Dictionary: View Entry
TDNT Reference: 1:475,80
KJV Translation Count — Total: 1x
The KJV translates Strong's G739 in the following manner: perfect (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

1. fitted
2. complete, perfect
   1. having reference apparently to "special aptitude for given uses"

Strong’s Definitions [?](Strong’s Definitions Legend)
ἄρτιος ártios, ar'-tee-os; from G737; fresh, i.e. (by implication) complete:—perfect.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon [?](Jump to Scripture Index)
STRONGS NT 739: ἄρτιος
ἄρτιος, -α, -ον, (ΑΡΩ to fit, [cf. Curtius, § 488]);
1. fitted.
2. complete, perfect, [having reference apparently to 'special aptitude for given uses']; so 2 Timothy 3:17 [cf. Ellicott at the passage; Trench, § xxii.]. (In Greek writings from Homer down.)

FYI Perfect is there yes but it is not contextual to 2tim 3:17 we must use what fix with the text and Authorial intent known as interpretation.

 

[justbyfaith]

Most of the time when someone responds to a point and the persons comments is:

" My beliefs are conformed to the holy scriptures. If you want to have another word, by all means say on..."

The implication is just that. You are suggesting one is not like you because you made a point to say what you are doing at the expense of one, you think is not doing that. IF you did not mean it that why would you assume one thought you were not a person who gets his belief from the Holy Scriptures?

No; I was simply affirming that my beliefs are according to scripture; because the suggestion was that they were not.

I was not suggesting in any way that the beliefs of anyone else are not conformed to holy scripture also;

While I believe that the Lord Jesus will be the judge of every individual case.

 

[justbyfaith]

FYI Perfect is there yes but it is not contextual to 2tim 3:17 we must use what fix with the text and Authorial intent known as interpretation.

Perfect can indeed be inferred from what is written, even in context.

It is one more scripture that declares that there is the possibility of Christian perfection in the life of the believer.

I do think that people heap for themselves teachers to tell them what their itching ears want to hear; and that such teachers, as a general rule, deny the reality of Christian perfection (entire sanctification) as a doctrine.

 

[Ogom]

See 1 John 2:20 (kjv).

1 John 2:20

"But ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things.
Verse 20. - The thought of many antichrists suggests that of many Christs; i.e., many who have been anointed χριστοί by the Christ himself. "The false teachers have the spirit of antichrist; ye have a chrism from the Christ." The Johannine καί places the two antithetical groups side by side, while the emphatic ὑμεῖς (comp. 1 John 4:4) accentuates the contrast. And ye have an anointing from the Holy One. The unction or chrism is the Holy Spirit (John 1:33; 1 John 3:24; 1 John 2:27). As Christ was anointed with the Spirit in all fullness, so each Christian is anointed with him in his measure (2 Corinthians 1:21, 22). The twenty-first 'Catechetical Lecture' of St. Cyril, "On the Holy Chrism," should be read in illustration of this verse. "In apostolic language, each Christian is in due measure himself a Christ, empowered by the gift of the Holy Spirit to announce the truth which he has learnt, to apply the atonement which he has received, to establish the kingdom which he believes to be universal" (Westcott). The ἀπό depends on ἔχετε, not on χρίσμα. The Holy One is Jesus Christ (John 6:69; Acts 3:14; Revelation 3:7; comp. John 14:26; John 16:7, 13). It is hard to decide between three readings:

(1) καὶ οἴδατε πάντα, "and ye know all things" necessary to salvation, i.e., "the truth" (verse 21; John 16:13);

(2) καὶ οἴδατε πάντες, "and ye all know" that ye have this anointing;

(3) οἴδατε πάντες," ye all know - I did not write to you because ye know not the truth." There is evidence of a fourth variation, πάντας "ye know all" the antichrists. If

(1) be right, it does not mean that the Christian is omniscient, but that he has the basis of all knowledge; he can see things in their right proportions. The apostle's own disciple, St. Polycarp, writes to the Philippians "

 

[CS1]

No; I was simply affirming that my beliefs are according to scripture; because the suggestion was that they were not.

I was not suggesting in any way that the beliefs of anyone else are not conformed to holy scripture also;

While I believe that the Lord Jesus will be the judge of every individual case.

then why say it? did I suggest that you were not?

 

[shittim]

I once saw the dalai lama, does that make me the "god king of tibet"? So when I send you a ticket to fly to me, is that piece of paper human. When I read people magazine, am I the editor?

The answers is
"No. But I was within hearing distance to the guy"
"No. It will not bleed when you rip it up"
"No. Certainly not from a tabloid"

that is a lot of confused mumbo jumbo

 

[justbyfaith]

then why say it? did I suggest that you were not?

No; someone else did.

 

[CS1]

Perfect can indeed be inferred from what is written, even in context.

It is one more scripture that declares that there is the possibility of Christian perfection in the life of the believer.

I do think that people heap for themselves teachers to tell them what their itching ears want to hear; and that such teachers, as a general rule, deny the reality of Christian perfection (entire sanctification) as a doctrine.

yes it can but not in context to 2tim 3:17 If you want to apply it please do but it is not saying you are Perfect meaning you have no imperfection which would mean you are indeed perfect. are you Perfect? or are you complete in Christ lacking nothing because that is what 2tim 3:17 is saying.

 

[CS1]

No; someone else did.

oh ok I must have them on ignore can see there response sorry