Where did King James only originate?

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justbyfaith

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Sep 16, 2021
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Nobody “took out” anything. Go and learn WHY these verses aren’t in (all of) the newer translations, and stop spewing lies and ignorance.
Read Revelation 22:18-19.

If the translators of the kjv had added what is included in Luke 9:55-56, then the plagues of the book of Revelation would have been added to them.

Since this did not happen, I conclude that the translators of the NIV (and other modern versions) took those words out of what is written. And therefore, an invisible punishment was given to them and all those who follow them (Revelation 22:18-19).
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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This is called wilful ignorance. So kindly check out Acts 8:37 for starters. Its absence destroys the passage completely. And that is only THE TIP OF THE ICEBERG!
Blah blah blah. Do your homework.
 

Dino246

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Sure it has; because I believe that I have received it (Mark 11:24), I have received it.
You aren’t qualified to judge your own fruit. Your beliefs on the matter are irrelevant.
 

justbyfaith

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You aren’t qualified to judge your own fruit. Your beliefs on the matter are irrelevant.
Mar 11:24, Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them.
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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I agree with you on this; I just don't don't agree the KJV 1611 is without error of any kind. No one can know that for sure. If you believe it, and it makes you feel better, then more power to you. I believe the Byzantine text is the best, but it's delusional to say the KJV 1611 is the only version that reflects the autographs with 100% accuracy.
To the KJB 'onliest' so-called would just tell this to you that there is certainty in the English translation KJB. If you are not sure or certain about the words of prophecy is the light that shineth in the dark place, then you have to look 2 Peter 1:19 hence this pertains to the translation of the word.

Why delusional to say we have inerrant words of God in English KJB. Isn't it a delusional thing to say there is no Bible that reflects 100% accuracy thus robbing God's promise to preserve his words?

2 Peter 1:19

“We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:”
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Mar 11:24, Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them.
Whether you actually have that for which you ask may be a matter of believing, but I don’t see evidence of it, and I judge your character by what you do, not by what you claim to believe. What you do is inconsistent with your claims.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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Whether you actually have that for which you ask may be a matter of believing, but I don’t see evidence of it, and I judge your character by what you do, not by what you claim to believe. What you do is inconsistent with your claims.
And of course, your judgment of me indicates deeper problems within your own heart.

For, we often see our own sins, magnified, in other people; and when we actually point them out, it is indicative of the fact that those sins have taken deep root within us.

If I make any judgment about you, it is based on what the word of the Lord says.

However, your judgments against me are according to the flesh and on the basis of the outward appearance.
 

ResidentAlien

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Apr 21, 2021
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To the KJB 'onliest' so-called would just tell this to you that there is certainty in the English translation KJB. If you are not sure or certain about the words of prophecy is the light that shineth in the dark place, then you have to look 2 Peter 1:19 hence this pertains to the translation of the word.

Why delusional to say we have inerrant words of God in English KJB. Isn't it a delusional thing to say there is no Bible that reflects 100% accuracy thus robbing God's promise to preserve his words?

2 Peter 1:19

“We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:”
Fred, no offence, but I take it English isn't your first language. It's a struggle to make out what you're saying. If I don't respond it's not because I'm ignoring you, I just can't understand what you're saying without great difficulty.
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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Fred, no offence, but I take it English isn't your first language. It's a struggle to make out what you're saying. If I don't respond it's not because I'm ignoring you, I just can't understand what you're saying without great difficulty.
I'll take no offense, actually English is my third language. If you can't just understand it, then just ignore it:). Yes, I am not requiring anyone to respond to me but I believe with all my heart that KB is the word of God in English. Yet, I am just thankful that the admin allowed me to be here even though I have a struggle expressing myself in your language, and if you may,, I'll just have to post things I know and leave it if you can't understand it. Is that just okay with you? Thanks
 

ResidentAlien

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Apr 21, 2021
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I'll take no offense, actually English is my third language. If you can't just understand it, then just ignore it:). Yes, I am not requiring anyone to respond to me but I believe with all my heart that KB is the word of God in English. Yet, I am just thankful that the admin allowed me to be here even though I have a struggle expressing myself in your language, and if you may,, I'll just have to post things I know and leave it if you can't understand it. Is that just okay with you? Thanks
Thanks for sharing that. You're doing better than me; I only know one language. Don't let me discourage you. I'll try to be a little more supportive. :)
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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Thanks for sharing that. You're doing better than me; I only know one language. Don't let me discourage you. I'll try to be a little more supportive. :)
Ok, would you mind then, how to figure these out? Is there no differences of the word "can" or "will". If they have why? Is this an example of corruption? Thanks
"NASB says:
But Mary said to the angel, “How will this be, since I am a virgin?”

NASB 1995
Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?”

NASB 1977
And Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?”
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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Ok, would you mind then, how to figure these out? Is there no differences of the word "can" or "will". If they have why? Is this an example of corruption? Thanks
"NASB says:
But Mary said to the angel, “How will this be, since I am a virgin?”

NASB 1995
Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?”

NASB 1977
And Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?”
BTW, this is found in Luke 1:34. Thanks
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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On the other hand, the KJB used "shall" which one is correct? Thanks
 

fredoheaven

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Another thing, KJB uses the opening sentence as "Then" whereas the NASB has "And and But". I just cant understand this but appreciate any input. Thanks
 

ResidentAlien

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Ok, would you mind then, how to figure these out? Is there no differences of the word "can" or "will". If they have why? Is this an example of corruption? Thanks
"NASB says:
But Mary said to the angel, “How will this be, since I am a virgin?”

NASB 1995
Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?”

NASB 1977
And Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I am a virgin?”
I believe "will this be" is the better translation. However, it's a bad translation, not a corruption in the underlying text. So no, I wouldn't call it a corruption but a bad translation.
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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I believe "will this be" is the better translation. However, it's a bad translation, not a corruption in the underlying text. So no, I wouldn't call it a corruption but a bad translation.
Thank you, but how do we say one is a bad translation and corrupt translation?
 

ResidentAlien

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Apr 21, 2021
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Thank you, but how do we say one is a bad translation and corrupt translation?
That's just the way I look at it.

All the Greek manuscripts that I'm aware of use the word estai: the TR, Westcott & Hort, the Majority Text—all of 'em. If Westcott & Hort, or someone else, had intentionally inserted a new word to replace estai, that would be corruption of the Greek text.

You're looking at from the viewpoint that the KJV 1611 English text is a perfect translation and any variation from that is a corruption. I don't see it that way. I look at the underlying Greek text.
 

fredoheaven

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Nov 17, 2015
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That's just the way I look at it.

All the Greek manuscripts that I'm aware of use the word estai: the TR, Westcott & Hort, the Majority Text—all of 'em. If Westcott & Hort, or someone else, had intentionally inserted a new word to replace estai, that would be corruption of the Greek text.

You're looking at from the viewpoint that the KJV 1611 English text is a perfect translation and any variation from that is a corruption. I don't see it that way. I look at the underlying Greek text.
Setting aside KJB and going back to the NASB, why "can" is a bad translation? and why "will" is a good one? Thanks