If the act of "two becoming one flesh" is what makes marriage, then intercourse with a prostitute means you are married.
Because filthy rich, lying politicians tell widows if they get married "legally" they will lose their pensions and/or SS!
The point is that the person/persons who just shack up are not really committed to a marriage and if it fails they can just walk away like it never happened.Some want to attack a few non State licensed marriages that fail. How about some stats on State licensed marriages that fail?
That is only your interpretation and if that be the case then there is no "fornication" because everyone who has sex is married as soon as they have sex. So that would make any sexual sin adultery, .Understanding biblical marriage sure does change things, doesn't it.
Agreed, two becoming one is not just a physical thing. It is also a mental, emotional, and spiritual thing. Two cannot fully become one unless it is called and ordained by God.Became one flesh means one head and same mind, means two have the same thought.is it too hard for mankind?
Yes that is exactly what I think....Jesus said she had 4 husbands and the one that she was with at that time was not her husband.Do you think this woman bad four marriage ceremonies or she slept with five different men?
John 4:16-18
16Jesus saith unto her, Go, call thy husband, and come hither. 17The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband: 18For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.
That is only your interpretation and if that be the case then there is no "fornication" because everyone who has sex is married as soon as they have sex. So that would make any sexual sin adultery, .
Can you see how that doesn't make any sense whatsoever? Why would the Bible even speak of fornication if it didn't exist?
Also what about gays and lesbians...Are they married in God's eyes just because they have sex with each other? I'd have to say NO seeing as that is an abomination unto the Lord.
Agreed, two becoming one is not just a physical thing. It is also a mental, emotional, and spiritual thing. Two cannot fully become one unless it is called and ordained by God.
It could be I guess but that does not mean that fornication makes for a marriage.Seems like adultery is a type of fornication.
Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Matthew 19:And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Yes that is exactly what I think....Jesus said she had 4 husbands and the one that she was with at that time was not her husband.
Seems evident by that scripture that being married and living with or just fornicating with someone are two totally different things.
Else he would have said you have had 5 husbands if just having sex with someone is considered being married to them... right?
It could be I guess but that does not mean that fornication makes for a marriage.
Is becoming one flesh the only stipulation for marriage? Through sex they may become one body...does that mean that was called by God and that God had ordained it.1 Corinthians 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
Or she has had sex with 5 other men, but now the man she is currently with she has not had relations with (hasn't become one flesh yet.) I think this is possible because Paul in 1 Cor. 6:16 says that even joining with a harlot is becoming one flesh.
Is becoming one flesh the only stipulation for marriage? Through sex they may become one body...does that mean that was called by God and that God had ordained it.
What God has joined together let not man separate. Do you think joined or put the harlot together as one with everyone they have had sex with?
I'd say no...God does not bless and ordain sin...He is not the one who is joining fornicators together...they are doing that through their own lusts and sin. Fornication does not equal marriage. That is clear.
Like I said I guess it could be. However, having sex with someone does not equal being married.If a wife (she's already married) commits fornication, what is that exactly? Also, committing adultery is marrying another, the sexual realationship.
Matthew 19:And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
I don't see it that way. If they had not had sex and weren't living in fornication then would there have been any reason for Jesus to even comment on it?Part of being married is becoming one flesh. My interpretation of John 4:16-18 is two possibilities: her previous husbands each died and she's currently living with a man who she has not had intercourse with.
Or she has had sex with 5 other men, but now the man she is currently with she has not had relations with (hasn't become one flesh yet.) I think this is possible because Paul in 1 Cor. 6:16 says that even joining with a harlot is becoming one flesh.
I don't see it that way. If they had not had sex and weren't living in fornication then would there have been any reason for Jesus to even comment on it?
He was offering her living water... the forgiveness of sin. So I think that is why he commented or even made mention to her SIN. ...IMHO
God defined marriage in Genesis 2:24 - That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh. Obviously "one flesh" is a euphemism for sex. And we know from Matt 19:4-6 the "rest of the story".It has been a curiosity to me for a long time as to why there are no specific directions for how to get married in the Bible. Marriage permeates our daily life and the fabric of our cultures and society yet the Bible is curiously silent on the topic.
Marriages are mentioned in the Bible, but are there any examples of vows, ceremony, documents, etc. Why?
Today I had a thought about this verse:
Matthew 5:28
28But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
So if a man or woman looks at someone to lust after them then they have committed adultery with them in their heart.
By process of reverse engineering Matt. 5:28, the implication is that if adultery occurs in the heart then marriage occurs in the heart, too.
Does this explain why there is no clearcut criteria for marriage in the Bible? We just need to look a little deeper and read between the lines a bit.
In the beginning, that was correct. However, fast forward, and a marriage is validated by a document, at least.I believe that it seems logical to me that true marriage occurs in the heart. A document and ceremony doesn't validate a marriage. As we know there are plenty of loveless sham marriages.
Interesting question!So what are your thoughts/opinions/debates/rebukes/etc? Thank you for taking the time to read this.