Saved by Water

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KelbyofGod

Senior Member
Oct 8, 2017
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717
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This post is for any who want clarification as to the relationship between baptism and the blood of Jesus.

In John the baptist's time, the sins were remitted (removed, washed away, forgiven) from the perpetrator.. and placed squarely on the back of Jesus, WAITING for Jesus to take them to the cross and atone for them with his blood.

In times since John the baptist, the sins are remitted (removed, washed away, forgiven) from the perpetrator.. and are covered by the blood of Jesus BECAUSE Jesus atoned for them with his blood on the cross.

Both BEFORE Jesus atoned for our sins on the cross with his blood (Mark 1:4, Luke 3:3) and AFTER Jesus atoned for our sins on the cross with his blood (Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, etc) water baptism is the mechanism for the removal (remission) part of this process. It doesn't accomplish the atonement part. Only the blood of Jesus accomplishes the atonement part.

Jesus completed HIS part of the process. Now he waits for all (who are willing) to RECEIVE the remission part. Baptism (for the remission of sins) is something you RECEIVE, not do. And it was established as such by God, not man. (Mark 1:4, Luke 3:3, Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, etc)

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
 

KelbyofGod

Senior Member
Oct 8, 2017
1,881
717
113
This post is for any who want clarification as to the relationship between baptism and the blood of Jesus.

In John the baptist's time, the sins were remitted (removed, washed away, forgiven) from the perpetrator.. and placed squarely on the back of Jesus, WAITING for Jesus to take them to the cross and atone for them with his blood.

In times since John the baptist, the sins are remitted (removed, washed away, forgiven) from the perpetrator.. and are covered by the blood of Jesus BECAUSE Jesus atoned for them with his blood on the cross.

Both BEFORE Jesus atoned for our sins on the cross with his blood (Mark 1:4, Luke 3:3) and AFTER Jesus atoned for our sins on the cross with his blood (Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, etc) water baptism is the mechanism for the removal (remission) part of this process. It doesn't accomplish the atonement part. Only the blood of Jesus accomplishes the atonement part.

Jesus completed HIS part of the process. Now he waits for all (who are willing) to RECEIVE the remission part. Baptism (for the remission of sins) is something you RECEIVE, not do. And it was established as such by God, not man. (Mark 1:4, Luke 3:3, Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, etc)

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
Even as clearly as that was stated, there are still at least two things not accurately stated. One was that of "placed squarely on the back" which is a figure of speech but I'm guessing you'll all understand the meaning. If someone catches the other one, I'll give them acknowledgement and clarification will be made. Again, most people are going to make an assumption which conveys correct understanding despite the inaccuracies.
 
Jan 31, 2021
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Here is another inspired verse that has to be true.

“Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves whoever has been born of him.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭5:1‬ ‭ESV‬‬
https://bible.com/bible/59/1jn.5.1.ESV

This verse is one reason that I don’t see any way the water in John 3:5 can be water baptism. If everyone who believes has already been born of God, then he timing for water baptism can’t work as a condition for being born again. Therefore the water refers to something else.
Correct. It appears Jesus was speaking about physical and spiritual birth in v.5.
 
Jan 31, 2021
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FreeGrace2 said:
Your reliance on Acts 2:38 is a huge mistake. That verse isn't for you. It was only for that crowd plus the Gentiles who saw Jesus' miracles, His fulfilling of prophecy, and then took part in His crucifixion.
That is an unbiblical statement (see Acts 2:39).
I'm tiring of your extreme stubbornness.

The experience of Cornelius totally refutes your notions.
 
Jan 31, 2021
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Since my view is correct; and you purport that in my view God is irrational, you are purporting that the correct view of God intimates Him as being irrational. Therefore, in your view, the correct view of God sets Him forth as irrational. And therefore God is irrational in your view; not mine.
You sure make a whole lot of assumptions; assumptions that are not biblical.

Just because you "claim" to have the correct view, doesn't make it correct.

Again, Cornelius refutes your view totally.
 
Jan 31, 2021
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However, the contention is that remission of sins and receiving the Holy Ghost are two different aspects of salvation;
Doesn't matter. A lot occurs when a person puts their 100% trust in Christ for salvation.

And that Cornelius and friends received the Holy Ghost when they spake in tongues but did not receive remission of sins until they were baptized in water.
You need to support this assumption with actual Scripture. Please do.
 
Jan 31, 2021
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FreeGrace2 said:
I already have, several times. That verse was given to THAT specific crowd, who had seen the miracles of Jesus, seen prophecy fulfilled, and yet partipated in His crucifixion. They needed to do what Peter said.

So that verse was for them only.
Acts 2:39 tells us that the promise was to them and to their children and to all that were afar off.

For it is clear to me that you are in denial of what is taught by holy scripture (in Acts 2:39).
I am in DENIAL of your presumptions, assumptions and speculations.

Cornelius refutes all of your notions. You should read Acts 10 and 11 and see where your notions align with his experience.
 
Jan 31, 2021
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Cornelius and friends were a part of the transitional period in Acts wherein the circumcision group was at that time opposed to Gentiles being included in the faith of Christianity.
Well, how about that!!??

You are now admitting that early Acts was "transitional". I made that point way back. But the clear point is that the experience of Cornelius doesn't align with what Peter told the crowd in Acts 2:38. Not even close.

Thus the issue with them may have indeed been an exception to the rule; the rule being found in Acts 2:38-39.
Well, I guess that's the easy way out when vainly trying to defend false doctrine.

The experience of Cornelius aligns EXACTLY with what Paul told the Galatian believers in Gal 3:2 and 5.

Belief precedes receiving the Holy Spirit.

The EXCEPTION (your word) is Acts 2:38.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
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FreeGrace2 said:
This is called positional sanctification.

Wrong. It is positional sanctification that is related to justification.

Apparently you didn't really read my post completely or carefully.
Is "positional sanctification" a practical thing in your opinion?

It amounts to justification...which is the declaration of righteousness apart from practical righteousness.

Is that not what you are saying "positional sanctification" is?

If not, I would appreciate a working definition.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
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You sure make a whole lot of assumptions; assumptions that are not biblical.

Just because you "claim" to have the correct view, doesn't make it correct.

Again, Cornelius refutes your view totally.
1Co 8:1, Now as touching things offered unto idols, we know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffeth up, but charity edifieth.
1Co 8:2, And if any man think that he knoweth any thing, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know.
1Co 8:3, But if any man love God, the same is known of him.


How does Cornelius refute my view totally?
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
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Belief precedes receiving the Holy Spirit.

The EXCEPTION (your word) is Acts 2:38.
I'm sure they believed before they were baptized; and therefore Acts 2:38 is not an exception.

It went like this:

Preaching --> repentance --> belief -->baptism --> received the Holy Ghost.

or,

Preaching --> belief --->repentance --> baptism --> received the Holy Ghost