The word "saints" is used in Colossians 1 four times. How do pre-tribbers square this with their belief that the church is gone in Revelation 4? Let me explain.
Revelation uses the word "saints" for those still on the earth after the supposed rapture in Revelation 4. Pre-tribbers say these are "tribulation saints," or those who get saved after the rapture.
But what about Colossians 1? Is Paul writing to the church or to future tribulation saints? The Greek words used in Colossians and Revelation are basically the same: hagios, hagion, hagious. They mean essentially the same thing, the different spellings represent different tenses. I think simple common sense should tell us the saints in Colossians are the church and the saints in Revelation are as well.
All those of God are Saints, sometimes IN GENERAL, the Jews are called Saints or holy peoples, we see John differentiates them on purpose in Revelation chapter 17.
Revelation 17:6 And 2532 I saw 1492 z5627 the x3588 woman 1135 drunken 3184 z5723 with 1537 the x3588 blood 129 of the x3588
Saints, 40 and 2532 with 1537 the x3588 blood 129 of the x3588 Martyrs 3144 of Iesus: 2424 and 2532 when I saw 1492 z5631 her, 846 I wondred 2296 z5656 with great 3173 admiration. 2295
#0040 ἅγιος hagios {hag'-ee-os}
from hagos (an awful thing) [cf G0053, G2282]; TDNT - 1:88,14; adj
—Greek Word Study (Transliteration-Pronunciation Etymology & Grammar)
1)
most holy thing, a saint
—Thayer's (New Testament Greek-English Lexicon)
From ἅγος [[hagos]] (an awful thing) compare G0053, [H2282];
sacred (physically pure, morally blameless or religious, ceremonially
consecrated):—(most) holy (one, thing), saint.
—Strong's (Greek Dictionary of the New Testament)
Rev. 17:6 And I saw the woman drunken with the
blood of the saints,
and with
the blood of the martyrs of Jesus: and when I saw her, I wondered with great admiration.
John here is calling the Jews the Saints and those Gentiles in Christ the Martyrs of Jesus.
Paul may indeed be doing the same thing in Col. ch. 1.
Col. 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and Timotheus our brother, 2
To the saints and faithful brethren in Christ which are at Colosse: Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
3 We give thanks to God and the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, praying always for you, 4 Since we heard of your faith in Christ Jesus,
and of the love which ye have to all the saints
12 Giving thanks unto the Father, whic
h hath made us meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light:
26 Even the
mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations,
but now is made manifest to his saints:
Now, I believe it is simply al those who are Sanctified unto God are Saints, both Jews and Gentiles AND on both sides of the Pre Trib Rapture. BUT....I also believe that 2000 years ago the Jews, Paul, Peter etc. etc. all saw themselves as the Saints of God IN GENERAL, and that now the Gentiles were becoming PARTAKERS with them, and that was a MYSTERY God revealed to the Saints (Jews like Paul/Peter etc.) which heretofore (at that time) had been hidden, but now was made manifest unto Paul and his fellow Jewish Saints. Its like calling a Dr. Pepper a cola in the generic term. Whereas I today see all men of God as Saints, the evidence shows they called the Jews The Saints and that John did the exact same thing in Rev. 17:6, he said the Harlot (ALL False Religion of All Time) had the blood of the Saints AND the blood of the Martyrs of Jesus on her hands, so he likewise differentiated the two. So, in Rev. 13, I think he is speaking about the Anti-Christ chasing the Jewish Saints who repent into the Wilderness AND killing the 2/3 of the Jewish "Saints" who never repent also, even though they don't repent, he will still have their blood on his hands so to speak. If In went through life and never came to Jesus, and someone murdered me, they are still guilty of murder. But overall, I think these are Gentile Saints who are being spoken of, because John does cite from all nations, thus they are Saints who come to Jesus after the Rapture.
The definition for Saints is basically someone who consecrates themselves unto God, so it doesn't matter, IMHO, if you are Jew or Gentile, or whether you do it pre trib or during the 70th week troubles, you are still a consecrated Saint of God.
The only reason I point out the above is to show how the Jewish people thought of themselves, in General as a Separated, Sanctified, Called out Nation unto God thus they were all Saints of God in they way they thought. We can see this in Daniel ch. 12 where they are called holy peoples via an end time prophesy, but we know only 1/3 of these end time Jews repent.
So, Jesus himself (Man in Linen) calls the end time Israel Holy Peoples !! SEE BELOW:
Dan. 12:7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when
he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.
So, in general, the Jews are the holy peoples and Saints because God SEPARATED Israel unto Himself, but Saints by now, IMHO, mean all men who separate themselves unto God, BUT...those men who wrote it saw Israel IN GENERAL, as The Saints, this can be proved by their writings.
The Rapture is PRE TRIB.
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