Can God be tempted? How well do we truly know Jesus Christ?

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Dec 22, 2021
41
11
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#1
The account of Jesus being tempted by the devil in Mt. 4 -
Mt.4:1 KJV "tempted" is Greek peirazo, Strong's #3985 "to test (objectively), i.e. endeavor, scrutinize, entice, discipline". The BDAG on this verse "to entice to improper behavior, tempt"

Mt.4:7 KJV "tempt" is Greek ekpeirazo, Strong's #1598 "to test thoroughly" with KJV Margin Note here "tempt: or, try, or, put to trial, or, proof". The NRSV reads "Do not put the Lord your God to the test." The AMGL on this word here: "to put to the proof or test, make trial of, tempt" and the BDAG "to subject to test or proof, tempt".

In v7 Jesus has quoted Deut. 6:16 in his answer to the devil. Which reads: "Ye shall not tempt the LORD your God, as ye tempted him in Massah."KJV, or "Do not put the LORD your God to the test, as you tested him at Massah", NRSV. In this reference, "tempt" is the Hebrew nacah, which Strong's defines as "1. to test. 2. (by implication) to attempt." In the Greek Septuagint, the KJV "tempt" is again the same Greek as Jesus is recorded using in Mt. 4:7, ekpeirazo.

Can a person be tempted if he has no sin nature, no original sin? If no original sin or sin nature is present, must the enticement be a test or trial, rather than a temptation as it is with us sinful men?

"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed." (Jas 1:13-14, KJV)

If God cannot be tempted with evil, could Jesus Christ be tempted with evil, or is he more accurately tested in all the usual human needs?

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18, KJV)
"Because he himself was tested by what he suffered, he is able to help those who are being tested." (Heb 2:18, NRSV)
"Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test." (Heb 2:18, REB)

Jesus did not have the sin nature as we have. Jesus was impeccable therefore could not sin. The phrase from John 14:30 as explained by Albert Barnes seems to speak to this:

"Hath nothing in me - There is in me no principle or feeling that accords with his, and nothing, therefore, by which he can prevail. Temptation has only power because there are some principles in us which accord with the designs of the tempter, and which may be excited by presenting corresponding objects until our virtue be overcome. Where there is no such propensity, temptation has no power. As the principles of Jesus were wholly on the side of virtue, the meaning here may be that, though he had the natural appetites of man, his virtue was so supreme that Satan “had nothing in him” which could constitute any danger that he would be led into sin, and that there was no fear of the result of the conflict before him." https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/bnb/john-14.html

From Robert L. Dabney's Systematic Theology:
"Now, none will say that the second Person, as eternal Word, was, or is peccable. It would seem then, that the trait can only be asserted of the humanity. But, first, it is the unanimous testimony of the Apostles, as it is the creed of the Church, that the human nature never had its separate personality. It never existed, and never will exist for an instant, save in personal union with the Word. Hence, (a.) Since only a Person can sin, the question is irrelevant; and (b.) Since the humanity never was, in fact, alone, the question whether, if alone, it would not have been peccable, like Adam, is idle. Second, it is impossible that the person constituted in union with the eternal and immutable Word, can sin. For this union is an absolute shield to the lower nature, against error. In the God man "dwells the fullness of the God head bodily," Col. 2:9. Third, this lower nature, upon its union with the Word, was imbued with the full influences of the Holy Spirit. Ps. 14:7; 61:1, 3; Luke 4:21; and 4:1; John 1:32; 3:34. Fourth, Christ seems to assert his own impeccability, John 14:30. "Satan cometh and bath nothing in me." So Paul, 2 Cor. 5:21, Christ "knew no sin," and in Heb. 13:8, "Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, to day and forever." John 10:36, "The Father hath sanctified and sent Him in the world." Fifth, if this endowment of Christ’s person rose no higher than a posse non peccare , it seems obvious that there was a possibility of the failure of God’s whole counsel of redemption. For, as all agree, a sinning sacrifice and intercessor could redeem no one. There must have been then, at least a decretive necessity, that all his actions should be infallibly holy."
https://www.grace-ebooks.com/library/Robert Dabney/RLD_Systematic Theology.pdf
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
5,883
1,953
113
#2
Define tempted? Does this mean that he was offered something, or does it mean that he was considering the execution of committing sin?

Matthew 5:27-28 NLT - 27 "You have heard the commandment that says, 'You must not commit adultery.' But I say, anyone who even looks at a woman with lust has already committed adultery with her in his heart."

In the above Words of Christ, He was not guilty of being tempted in the sense of considering it. For example, if he considered shagging a woman, He would have sinned and thus become imperfect. And if Christ was imperfect, I would remove Him as my God.
 
Mar 23, 2016
7,021
1,673
113
#3
If God cannot be tempted with evil, could Jesus Christ be tempted with evil, or is he more accurately tested in all the usual human needs?

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18, KJV)
"Because he himself was tested by what he suffered, he is able to help those who are being tested." (Heb 2:18, NRSV)
"Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test." (Heb 2:18, REB)
The Lord Jesus Christ is our example. When He was tempted in the wilderness, He relied on "it is written" and He showed us that we can overcome through trusting God.


God never told us that this life would be without trial, temptation, suffering. What God tells us is that when we do go through our time of affliction, He will help us ... He will work in us so we are able to withstand.


The Lord Jesus Christ told us:

Matthew 11:28-30 Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls. For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light.

Jesus does not add to our burden ... however, as we yoke up to Jesus, He helps us with our burden ...


In 1 Peter 5:6-11, God tells us that as we go through our afflictions He is working in us to perfect, stablish, strengthen, settle us.

When we are going through adversity, do we focus on the problems we face? ...

or do we turn to God and focus on what He is working in us so that we are able to endure?



 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,479
13,785
113
#4
The account of Jesus being tempted by the devil in Mt. 4 -
Mt.4:1 KJV "tempted" is Greek peirazo, Strong's #3985 "to test (objectively), i.e. endeavor, scrutinize, entice, discipline". The BDAG on this verse "to entice to improper behavior, tempt"

Mt.4:7 KJV "tempt" is Greek ekpeirazo, Strong's #1598 "to test thoroughly" with KJV Margin Note here "tempt: or, try, or, put to trial, or, proof". The NRSV reads "Do not put the Lord your God to the test." The AMGL on this word here: "to put to the proof or test, make trial of, tempt" and the BDAG "to subject to test or proof, tempt".

In v7 Jesus has quoted Deut. 6:16 in his answer to the devil. Which reads: "Ye shall not tempt the LORD your God, as ye tempted him in Massah."KJV, or "Do not put the LORD your God to the test, as you tested him at Massah", NRSV. In this reference, "tempt" is the Hebrew nacah, which Strong's defines as "1. to test. 2. (by implication) to attempt." In the Greek Septuagint, the KJV "tempt" is again the same Greek as Jesus is recorded using in Mt. 4:7, ekpeirazo.

Can a person be tempted if he has no sin nature, no original sin? If no original sin or sin nature is present, must the enticement be a test or trial, rather than a temptation as it is with us sinful men?

"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed." (Jas 1:13-14, KJV)

If God cannot be tempted with evil, could Jesus Christ be tempted with evil, or is he more accurately tested in all the usual human needs?

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18, KJV)
"Because he himself was tested by what he suffered, he is able to help those who are being tested." (Heb 2:18, NRSV)
"Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test." (Heb 2:18, REB)

Jesus did not have the sin nature as we have. Jesus was impeccable therefore could not sin. The phrase from John 14:30 as explained by Albert Barnes seems to speak to this:

"Hath nothing in me - There is in me no principle or feeling that accords with his, and nothing, therefore, by which he can prevail. Temptation has only power because there are some principles in us which accord with the designs of the tempter, and which may be excited by presenting corresponding objects until our virtue be overcome. Where there is no such propensity, temptation has no power. As the principles of Jesus were wholly on the side of virtue, the meaning here may be that, though he had the natural appetites of man, his virtue was so supreme that Satan “had nothing in him” which could constitute any danger that he would be led into sin, and that there was no fear of the result of the conflict before him." https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/bnb/john-14.html

From Robert L. Dabney's Systematic Theology:
"Now, none will say that the second Person, as eternal Word, was, or is peccable. It would seem then, that the trait can only be asserted of the humanity. But, first, it is the unanimous testimony of the Apostles, as it is the creed of the Church, that the human nature never had its separate personality. It never existed, and never will exist for an instant, save in personal union with the Word. Hence, (a.) Since only a Person can sin, the question is irrelevant; and (b.) Since the humanity never was, in fact, alone, the question whether, if alone, it would not have been peccable, like Adam, is idle. Second, it is impossible that the person constituted in union with the eternal and immutable Word, can sin. For this union is an absolute shield to the lower nature, against error. In the God man "dwells the fullness of the God head bodily," Col. 2:9. Third, this lower nature, upon its union with the Word, was imbued with the full influences of the Holy Spirit. Ps. 14:7; 61:1, 3; Luke 4:21; and 4:1; John 1:32; 3:34. Fourth, Christ seems to assert his own impeccability, John 14:30. "Satan cometh and bath nothing in me." So Paul, 2 Cor. 5:21, Christ "knew no sin," and in Heb. 13:8, "Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, to day and forever." John 10:36, "The Father hath sanctified and sent Him in the world." Fifth, if this endowment of Christ’s person rose no higher than a posse non peccare , it seems obvious that there was a possibility of the failure of God’s whole counsel of redemption. For, as all agree, a sinning sacrifice and intercessor could redeem no one. There must have been then, at least a decretive necessity, that all his actions should be infallibly holy."
https://www.grace-ebooks.com/library/Robert Dabney/RLD_Systematic Theology.pdf
Either Jesus was actually tempted (able to sin) in the wilderness, or He did not conquer sin by overcoming temptation. If the temptation could not succeed, the entire scene in the desert is a sham and the following verse is a lie:

Hebrews 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet he did not sin.
 

Rondonmon

Senior Member
May 13, 2016
1,304
183
63
#5
The account of Jesus being tempted by the devil in Mt. 4 -
Mt.4:1 KJV "tempted" is Greek peirazo, Strong's #3985 "to test (objectively), i.e. endeavor, scrutinize, entice, discipline". The BDAG on this verse "to entice to improper behavior, tempt"

Mt.4:7 KJV "tempt" is Greek ekpeirazo, Strong's #1598 "to test thoroughly" with KJV Margin Note here "tempt: or, try, or, put to trial, or, proof". The NRSV reads "Do not put the Lord your God to the test." The AMGL on this word here: "to put to the proof or test, make trial of, tempt" and the BDAG "to subject to test or proof, tempt".

In v7 Jesus has quoted Deut. 6:16 in his answer to the devil. Which reads: "Ye shall not tempt the LORD your God, as ye tempted him in Massah."KJV, or "Do not put the LORD your God to the test, as you tested him at Massah", NRSV. In this reference, "tempt" is the Hebrew nacah, which Strong's defines as "1. to test. 2. (by implication) to attempt." In the Greek Septuagint, the KJV "tempt" is again the same Greek as Jesus is recorded using in Mt. 4:7, ekpeirazo.

Can a person be tempted if he has no sin nature, no original sin? If no original sin or sin nature is present, must the enticement be a test or trial, rather than a temptation as it is with us sinful men?

"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed." (Jas 1:13-14, KJV)

If God cannot be tempted with evil, could Jesus Christ be tempted with evil, or is he more accurately tested in all the usual human needs?

"For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." (Heb 2:18, KJV)
"Because he himself was tested by what he suffered, he is able to help those who are being tested." (Heb 2:18, NRSV)
"Because he himself has passed through the test of suffering, he is able to help those who are in the midst of their test." (Heb 2:18, REB)

Jesus did not have the sin nature as we have. Jesus was impeccable therefore could not sin. The phrase from John 14:30 as explained by Albert Barnes seems to speak to this:

"Hath nothing in me - There is in me no principle or feeling that accords with his, and nothing, therefore, by which he can prevail. Temptation has only power because there are some principles in us which accord with the designs of the tempter, and which may be excited by presenting corresponding objects until our virtue be overcome. Where there is no such propensity, temptation has no power. As the principles of Jesus were wholly on the side of virtue, the meaning here may be that, though he had the natural appetites of man, his virtue was so supreme that Satan “had nothing in him” which could constitute any danger that he would be led into sin, and that there was no fear of the result of the conflict before him." https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/bnb/john-14.html

From Robert L. Dabney's Systematic Theology:
"Now, none will say that the second Person, as eternal Word, was, or is peccable. It would seem then, that the trait can only be asserted of the humanity. But, first, it is the unanimous testimony of the Apostles, as it is the creed of the Church, that the human nature never had its separate personality. It never existed, and never will exist for an instant, save in personal union with the Word. Hence, (a.) Since only a Person can sin, the question is irrelevant; and (b.) Since the humanity never was, in fact, alone, the question whether, if alone, it would not have been peccable, like Adam, is idle. Second, it is impossible that the person constituted in union with the eternal and immutable Word, can sin. For this union is an absolute shield to the lower nature, against error. In the God man "dwells the fullness of the God head bodily," Col. 2:9. Third, this lower nature, upon its union with the Word, was imbued with the full influences of the Holy Spirit. Ps. 14:7; 61:1, 3; Luke 4:21; and 4:1; John 1:32; 3:34. Fourth, Christ seems to assert his own impeccability, John 14:30. "Satan cometh and bath nothing in me." So Paul, 2 Cor. 5:21, Christ "knew no sin," and in Heb. 13:8, "Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, to day and forever." John 10:36, "The Father hath sanctified and sent Him in the world." Fifth, if this endowment of Christ’s person rose no higher than a posse non peccare , it seems obvious that there was a possibility of the failure of God’s whole counsel of redemption. For, as all agree, a sinning sacrifice and intercessor could redeem no one. There must have been then, at least a decretive necessity, that all his actions should be infallibly holy."
https://www.grace-ebooks.com/library/Robert Dabney/RLD_Systematic Theology.pdf
SHORT AND SWEET.......................................................God can't be tempted, He will not ALLOW IT. In other words He can forbid the Spirit of anti-Christ from tempting Him because the Spirit of anti-Christ is in plain speak simply the opposite of God's nature, and it tempted Lucifer, who then fell. Now God did allow Jesus to be tempted (and Jesus is God) to show mankind that being as they were created in God's Image and without sin, they could have withstood sin, SEE MY SON Jesus will do that very thing. BOOM. So, the Father allowed his son to be tempted by Satan in order to have it on record that the fallen nature of man was man's fault, not God's doings, not a pre determined outcome so to speak, which would also be against God's nature/FREEWILL.

So, Jesus was placed on earth as a sacrifice, and suffered all the temptations and troubles we do, for a specific reason, so we can have a witness, our Sin Nature was our fault, and we thus needed redeeming.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,152
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113
#6
Define tempted? Does this mean that he was offered something, or does it mean that he was considering the execution of committing sin?

Matthew 5:27-28 NLT - 27 "You have heard the commandment that says, 'You must not commit adultery.' But I say, anyone who even looks at a woman with lust has already committed adultery with her in his heart."

In the above Words of Christ, He was not guilty of being tempted in the sense of considering it. For example, if he considered shagging a woman, He would have sinned and thus become imperfect. And if Christ was imperfect, I would remove Him as my God.
Jesus was tempted at every point like we are the difference is he didn’t sin we did . He overcame the flesh and never sinned though he was tempted in every way we are

“For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:15‬ ‭KJV‬‬

he became a man and was tempted as men are and he overcame it never obeyed sin always obeyed God even though it took him to the cross
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
5,883
1,953
113
#7
Jesus was tempted at every point like we are the difference is he didn’t sin we did .
Are you saying that you believe that Jesus was tempted to steal, rape, pillage, and murder? If so, then I wouldn't want to be a christian, because it would mean that THAT jesus couldn't be my savior. I'd reject him outright.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,152
5,723
113
#8
Christ had to be tempted in the same ways we are because he partook of flesh that’s what gets tempted our flesh . He did the is for an important reason

“Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same;

that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭2:14-18‬ ‭KJV‬‬

we needed a man like us to mediate a relationship with God so he became what we needed

“Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:14-16‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Jesus facing The same temptations we do is important doctrine knowing he was tempted the same ways but he didn’t commit sin he never yielded to temptation we all Have Jesus doesn’t.

when you say “ Jesus didn’t have the sinful nature “ it’s actually that he became flesh like we are and that makes one able to be tempted the flesh of man is tempted and Jesus partook of the flesh in order to overcome the power of Satan which is temptation leading to sin and resulting in death

God became what man needed we had to have a perfect man to intercede or all was lost so he became our high priest forever

“As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec. Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;

And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him; Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭5:6-10‬ ‭KJV‬‬

He was tempted and overcame it to save us. God is a spirit temptation is of the flesh so he became flesh and blood to experience temptation and overcome it for mankind and empower us with grace and truth so we can overcome following his example and filled with his gospel spirit of truth
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
5,883
1,953
113
#9
Christ had to be tempted in the same ways we are because he partook of flesh that’s what gets tempted our flesh . He did the is for an important reason

“Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same;

that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭2:14-18‬ ‭KJV‬‬

we needed a man like us to mediate a relationship with God so he became what we needed

“Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭4:14-16‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Jesus facing The same temptations we do is important doctrine knowing he was tempted the same ways but he didn’t commit sin he never yielded to temptation we all Have Jesus doesn’t.

when you say “ Jesus didn’t have the sinful nature “ it’s actually that he became flesh like we are and that makes one able to be tempted the flesh of man is tempted and Jesus partook of the flesh in order to overcome the power of Satan which is temptation leading to sin and resulting in death

God became what man needed we had to have a perfect man to intercede or all was lost so he became our high priest forever

“As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec. Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered;

And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him; Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭5:6-10‬ ‭KJV‬‬

He was tempted and overcame it to save us. God is a spirit temptation is of the flesh so he became flesh and blood to experience temptation and overcome it for mankind and empower us with grace and truth so we can overcome following his example and filled with his gospel spirit of truth
Are you saying that you believe that Jesus actually considered stealing, raping, pillaging, and murdering? Jesus had these things in His heart?
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,152
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#10
Are you saying that you believe that Jesus was tempted to steal, rape, pillage, and murder? If so, then I wouldn't want to be a christian, because it would mean that THAT jesus couldn't be my savior. I'd reject him outright.
I’m saying Jesus faced temptations of evil and if he hadn’t we could t be saved read my last post but just consider the scripture ot actually explains it all

this is what I’m saying

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 4:15 KJV

That seems pretty straight forward. I do t find reasons to reject what's plain I can't learn anything that way. It isn't a very good idea to reject Jesus because he was tempted and never sinned . It doesn't make someone a sinner to be tempted it makes us unclean when we obey temptation and commit sin
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,152
5,723
113
#11
I
Are you saying that you believe that Jesus actually considered stealing, raping, pillaging, and murdering? Jesus had these things in His heart?
Im saying I believe what scripture has to say


It plainly says he was tempted at all points like we are.
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 4:15 K



And I'm saying it's all explained why he had to do that for us
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
5,883
1,953
113
#12
I’m saying Jesus faced temptations of evil and if he hadn’t we could t be saved read my last post but just consider the scripture ot actually explains it all

this is what I’m saying

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 4:15 KJV

That seems pretty straight forward. I do t find reasons to reject what's plain I can't learn anything that way. It isn't a very good idea to reject Jesus because he was tempted and never sinned . It doesn't make someone a sinner to be tempted it makes us unclean when we obey temptation and commit sin
I am asking you if you believe that Jesus was tempted to rape a woman . . . a little boy, for example.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,152
5,723
113
#13
I am asking you if you believe that Jesus was tempted to rape a woman . . . a little boy, for example.
Why would you ask such a question ? It seems like I'm talking about what scripture says and you keep bringing up rape what's up with that ? Are you tempted to do that stuff?
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
5,883
1,953
113
#14
Why would you ask such a question ? It seems like I'm talking about what scripture says and you keep bringing up rape what's up with that ? Are you tempted to do that stuff?
You said that Jesus was tempted. I am trying to define the word. To clarify, I am asking you the question. Was Jesus tempted to rape a person to death until she died, for example? Did Jesus ever think about knocking a tax collector over the head and stealing his money? Did Jesus ever think about disobeying God?

It's simple. Why are you unable to say yes if this is what you believe?
 

Charlie24

Well-known member
Oct 31, 2021
998
270
63
#15
I am asking you if you believe that Jesus was tempted to rape a woman . . . a little boy, for example.
The mind of Jesus couldn't have worked that way. He was born of the Spirit and had no sin nature.

Those thoughts of sinning never entered His mind, imo. But that doesn't mean it was not possible for Him to sin.
 

2ndTimothyGroup

Well-known member
Feb 20, 2021
5,883
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#16
The mind of Jesus couldn't have worked that way. He was born of the Spirit and had no sin nature.

Those thoughts of sinning never entered His mind, imo. But that doesn't mean it was not possible for Him to sin.
What do you think of the following verse in relationship to what you just wrote? Either you or John must be wrong . . . I certainly don't see how you both could be right.

1 John 3:5 NLT - "And you know that Jesus came to take away our sins, and there is no sin in him."
 

Pilgrimshope

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Sep 2, 2020
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#17
You said that Jesus was tempted. I am trying to define the word. To clarify, I am asking you the question. Was Jesus tempted to rape a person to death until she died, for example? Did Jesus ever think about knocking a tax collector over the head and stealing his money? Did Jesus ever think about disobeying God?

It's simple. Why are you unable to say yes if this is what you believe?
SCripture says it lol im Just showing you


For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 4:15 KJV
the whole rapist thing that's coming from you you'll have to answer that one I'm showing you what scripture says about Jesus being tempted if you want to find ways to reject it that's up to you but the fact is he was tempted in the same ways we are and never sinned
 

Pilgrimshope

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Sep 2, 2020
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#18
What do you think of the following verse in relationship to what you just wrote? Either you or John must be wrong . . . I certainly don't see how you both could be right.

1 John 3:5 NLT - "And you know that Jesus came to take away our sins, and there is no sin in him."


Yeah that supports that he was tempted and yet without sin it doesn't say he wasn't tempted it says he was and never sinned. Temptation isn't sin it's an invite to com it sin that's part of being in this world

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 4:15 K




Still no sin but clearly he was tempted
 

Charlie24

Well-known member
Oct 31, 2021
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#19
What do you think of the following verse in relationship to what you just wrote? Either you or John must be wrong . . . I certainly don't see how you both could be right.

1 John 3:5 NLT - "And you know that Jesus came to take away our sins, and there is no sin in him."
I agree with John, He had no sin. He never even sinned in thought, which seems to be what I said.
 

BonnieClaire

Well-known member
Jul 1, 2021
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#20
God cannot succumb to temptation...

James 1:13
Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: ~KJV




...and Jesus and the Holy Spirit used that foolish tempter to prove it!

Matthew 4:1
Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. ~KJV

Matthew 4:3
And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread. ~KJV