If one part of the Law no longer applies, how do you rationalize others parts of the Law still exist?
Are we not Gentiles grafted in?
That Act is called Grace, not Law!
Tithing/Giving in the New Testament
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If one part of the Law no longer applies, how do you rationalize others parts of the Law still exist?
Are we not Gentiles grafted in?
That Act is called Grace, not Law!
It's common sense. The moral laws of the Law of Moses were carried over into the New Covenant.
It was wrong to steal, murder, etc, etc, 3000 years ago and it's still wrong today.
Those laws are still in force. I used for example that justification by faith being in effect before, during, and after the Law.
Just as the tithe was in effect before, during, and after the Law.
But man desires to rid himself of this responsibility of supporting the Gospel, except when it's convenient to do so.
Jesus is our Example.
Nowhere can you find Jesus paying Tithes. Ironically, we have examples of Him paying TAXES, but not Tithes.
Who is our Example we should Follow?
Really? What about this part:
Malachi 3:6 For I, the Lord, do not change; therefore you, the sons of Jacob, have not come to an end.
The money that Judas kept that was given to them, and therefore given also to Christ, was He to give that money to the crooked Sanhedrin or to the poor as He gave commandment?
The key word, money was "given" to them.
Where does it show that Jesus asked for this Money or commanded it be given in Tithe?
The Law does not allow for non-payment of tithes if the priests are wicked.
However, the Law also does not require tithes on money received as personal support or as gifts; it was only payable on agricultural products.
my church did a sermon on the tithe the first sunday of last year.
i seriously thought about bringing them 2 pounds of pecans.
that would have been my 10th of increase in my crop.
That is referring to the covenant God with Abraham. He could not go back and change that promise to Abraham concerning his offspring through Jacob.
The Law allows for whatever the Son of God says it allows for.
He is the One who wrote it, and we see many things of the Law not understood by them and us.
The tithe that Jesus paid was to the poor, not to the temple that disgraced Him.
I think we can safely say without fear of exaggerating that Jesus gave to the poor from John 13:29,
"For some of them thought, because Judas had the bag, that Jesus had said unto him, Buy those things that we have need of against the feast; or, that he should give something to the poor."
It is specific to the sons of Jacob, who constitute ancient Israel. It is not written to Christians. Christians are never referred to as 'sons of Jacob'.
"The tithe that Jesus paid"... which verse is that, exactly? There isn't one.
As for giving to the poor, you're ignoring context on that verse as well.
If Jesus was in charge of that money and He was, and if Jesus obeyed the Law and He did, then Jesus paid tithes on that money He received. It is only my opinion that He paid those tithes by giving to the poor.
The New Testament has no such command to pay tithes. If you're going to give then "God loves a cheerful giver." (2 Cor. 9:6-7) The question is, does God love a cheerless giver? In my opinion, if you feel unhappy, coerced or disgruntled in your giving then maybe it's better to wait until your heart is better.
The wisdom of Proverbs 15:17 comes to mind, "17Better is a dinner of herbs where love is, than a stalled ox and hatred therewith."
If a mediocre dinner of herbs with love is better than meat with hatred, then doesn't that apply to our giving too? Just something to think about.
The wisdom of Proverbs 15:17 comes to mind, "17Better is a dinner of herbs where love is, than a stalled ox and hatred therewith."
If a mediocre dinner of herbs with love is better than meat with hatred, then doesn't that apply to our giving too? Just something to think about.
You really should do your homework before you embarrass yourself.
Jesus could not give donated money to the poor and consider it a "tithe". Firstly, the tithe was not payable on donated money (if you think it is, find it in the Law!); and secondly, the tithe was to be given to the Levites, who would then give it to the poor.
Aside from being inconsistent with Scripture, your assertion is entirely speculative and has absolutely no evidentiary value.