The reason I ask you this is so that I might perhaps know how to proceed...Did you read post #130? Did it make sense to you?
If I understand correctly what you are saying here, then I would suggest that it is part of the 'evidence' that the word 'prince' in verse 26 is not referring to [the] Messiah.In the last verse there's only one Messiah the Prince, why should it be separated into two persons? And then go back to the Messiah in the next verse?
If it were, would it not say 'Messiah'/'He'/etc?
After having identified 'Messiah' specifically, there would be no reason to use a [more] vague statement like 'the prince that shall come' if it were referring to [the] Messiah.