That's male bovine residue...but, Oh...maybe I missed it...what post or posts?my feeling.
Have you copied and pasted the list on other threads? Or has other posters been copying and pasting your list here? I went back many pages and couldn't find my response to your list, but I know I addressed each verse.
So, here is your list again, from post #626:
Peter 3: 21....
whereunto even baptism doth also now save us...
You keep leaving off the first part of the verse which says, "this water (literal) symbolizes the baptism that does now save us. So you are being quite dishonest to leave off what refutes your claims.
John 3:5 .......Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and
of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
The context here proves that Jesus was noting BOTH physical and spiritual birth to Nic. In v.4 Nic seemed to think to be born again he had to enter his mother's womb AGAIN. So Jesus' answer showed both PHYSICAL and SPIRITUAL birth is needed to enter the kingdom of God.
Acts 2;38-....Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
We know that the Greek "repent" means to change the mind, which is required to believe the gospel. Peter's words were to a special crowd; one who saw the miracles, with prove Jesus' deity, and still rejected Him. This does not apply to anyone today.
Acts 22;16... And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
From: http://www.freebiblecommentary.org/new_testament_studies/VOL03B/VOL03B_22.html
"be baptized and wash away your sins" These are both AORIST MIDDLE IMPERATIVES. This is an OT allusion to the ceremonial ablutions (cf. Lev. 11:25,28,40; 13:6,34,56; 14:8-9; 15:5-13,21-22,27; 16:26,28; 17:15-16; Num. 8:7,21; 19:19; Deut. 23:11). It is used here as a symbol of our spiritual cleansing in Christ (cf. 1 Cor. 6:11; Eph. 5:26; Titus 3:5; Heb. 10:22). Baptism was the early Church's public profession of faith.
Notice that the MIDDLE VOICE refers to both baptism (AORIST MIDDLE IMPERATIVE) and cleansing (AORIST MIDDLE IMPERATIVE). Paul could not wash away his sins, but he could baptize himself (Jewish practice for proselytes). Often it is said that immersion is the only NT pattern (cf. Romans 6 and Colossians 2), but here baptism is linked to the metaphor of washing (cf. Acts 2:38; 1 Cor. 6:11; Eph. 5:26; Titus 3:5; Heb. 10:22). Theologically 1 Pet. 3:21 shows that it is a symbol, not a sacrament!
Modern interpreters must be careful of basing too much on the MIDDLE or PASSIVE VOICE because these were merging into the PASSIVE form in Koine Greek. Paul is said to have been baptized (PASSIVE) in Acts 9:18.
Galations 3:26...... For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
Note v.26, we become the children of God THROUGH FAITH, not baptism. v.27 is a clear reference to the baptism of the Holy Spirit, who places the believer into Christ. Eph 1:13,14
KJV Marrk 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
First, all study Bibles note that v.9-20 were NOT in the oldest and most reliable manuscripts, meaning that it was added some time later, and therefore isn't the inspired Word. Also, it is most likely that whoever did add this portion was thinking of the baptism of the Spirit anyway.
KJV Matthew 3:14... But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15. Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now, for thus it becometh us to fulfil all rightesousness. Then He suffered Him.
This baptism of Jesus certainly wasn't for salvation. It was His identification with His Father's plan for Him. The Greek word does mean "immerse" and was used for dipping a cloth into a vat of dye. The cloth took on the color of the dye, and was "identified" with that dye.
So the word came to be used as "an identification with" something. In Jesus' baptism, He was being identified with His Father.
Acts 8:12-18: But when they believed Philip as he preached the things concerning the kingdom of God and the name of Jesus Christ, both men and women were baptized.
Yes, believers were baptized. But this verse doesn't say or claim that water baptism is for salvation.
John 3; 22 After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.
23 And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized.
Go to John 4:1 for more clarity:
1 Now Jesus learned that the Pharisees had heard that he was gaining and baptizing more disciples than John—
2 although in fact it was not Jesus who baptized, but his disciples.
when I see it I will retract.
OK, here are my comments that address ALL your verses. Again.