Listen closely to James 2:18
But someone will say, “You have faith; I have deeds. Show me your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith by my deeds."
I will point out that I moved the second quote mark from after the first "deeds" to after the second "deeds". I did this because the verse makes NO SENSE where all the translations place that second quote mark.
The "someone" actually says the whole verse: you have faith; I have deeds. Show me (the someone) your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith BY MY DEEDS.
iow, the "someone" begins by noting he has deeds. But the next sentence shows that he says that he can "show you" his faith BY HIS DEEDS.
This "someone" is addressing another who "has faith". So the "someone" is challenging the other person to show him his faith without any deeds.
The point is; a believer cannot show their faith apart from their deeds.
And that was the example James gave in v.15,16.
15 Suppose a brother or a sister is without clothes and daily food.
16 If one of you says to them, “Go in peace; keep warm and well fed,” but does nothing about their physical needs, what good is it?
iow, it isn't any good. Words don't meet needs. Actions do.
Yep, and that didn't save him either. What is your point?
I gave you a clear explanation of James 2:18, yet you come back with this:
So, either you didn't even bother to read it, or you did and rejected it altogether. Why would you do either?
James 2:18 is a very clear summary of James' point about a dead faith. It DOESN'T demonstrate one's faith.
But ignorant pastors all over the country (and world) have misunderstood James think James was teaching that a faith without deeds doesn't save. Just plain ignorance.
James taught that a faith without deeds can't be demonstrated.
But someone will say, “You have faith; I have deeds. Show me your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith by my deeds."
I will point out that I moved the second quote mark from after the first "deeds" to after the second "deeds". I did this because the verse makes NO SENSE where all the translations place that second quote mark.
The "someone" actually says the whole verse: you have faith; I have deeds. Show me (the someone) your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith BY MY DEEDS.
iow, the "someone" begins by noting he has deeds. But the next sentence shows that he says that he can "show you" his faith BY HIS DEEDS.
This "someone" is addressing another who "has faith". So the "someone" is challenging the other person to show him his faith without any deeds.
The point is; a believer cannot show their faith apart from their deeds.
And that was the example James gave in v.15,16.
15 Suppose a brother or a sister is without clothes and daily food.
16 If one of you says to them, “Go in peace; keep warm and well fed,” but does nothing about their physical needs, what good is it?
iow, it isn't any good. Words don't meet needs. Actions do.
Yep, and that didn't save him either. What is your point?
I gave you a clear explanation of James 2:18, yet you come back with this:
So, either you didn't even bother to read it, or you did and rejected it altogether. Why would you do either?
James 2:18 is a very clear summary of James' point about a dead faith. It DOESN'T demonstrate one's faith.
But ignorant pastors all over the country (and world) have misunderstood James think James was teaching that a faith without deeds doesn't save. Just plain ignorance.
James taught that a faith without deeds can't be demonstrated.
"You see that his faith and his actions were working together, and his faith was made complete by what he did." James 2:21-22
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