Gen 12.1 The Lord had said to Abram, “Go from your country, your people and your father’s household to the land I will show you.
2 “I will make you into a great nation.
17.3 Abram fell facedown, and God said to him, 4 “As for me, this is my covenant with you: You will be the father of many nations. 5 No longer will you be called Abram; your name will be Abraham, for I have made you a father of many nations. 6 I will make you very fruitful; I will make nations of you, and kings will come from you. 7 I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you.
I took a moment to look back at what was going on here. In post 102, you listed Gen 12:1, Gen 12:2, and then jumped to Gen 17:3-7. At the time I thought you were drawing from some version of the Bible that lists "seeds" in Gen 12:7. It turns out coincidentally that the same criticism applies to Gen 17:7.
The Strong's concordance (Strong's 2233) shows that these instances of "descendants" seen in some translations of Gen 17:7 are functionally the same as the "seed"/"offspring"/"descendant" in Gen 12:7. Both are second person masculine singular.
With this in mind, yes, I would go so far to say that NIV is a corrupted text if not observed with the correct context. Each of these instances of "seed" are preserved correctly in the KJV and these seed promises are what Gal 3:16 discusses.
There is a subtly between promises made directly to descendants of Abraham vs. promises made to Christ and therefore indirectly to some descendants of Abraham for those descendants in Christ.
To Paul, the literal descendants of Abraham by faith constituted "Christ's Body."
Literal spiritual descendants regardless of physical origin: Christians. (cf. Gal 3:29)
There is no bad or heretical translation in this matter.
If we wind this back for a moment, do you believe that Gal 3:16 does not apply to Gen 17:7 but does apply to Gen 12:7? Both functionally use the same term for "seed" in a singular way.
Can you contemplate the concept that NIV might not be a good translation if that is the case?
Or any scholarly position that admits any modern version of [Gen 12:7] to be a bad translation?
As I explained: pluralization is not heretical from the perspective of Talmudic Judaism. That is because Talmudic Judaism does not consider the New Testament to be the inerrant word of God. pluralization IS heretical from the perspective of Christianity because Gal 3:16 specifically references the "seed" in Gen 12:7 and states in no unclear terms that it is "seed" singular, not "seeds" plural via Gal 3:16. In the same way that English words like "sheep" and "fish" can be understood to be singular or plural depending on the context, so too that Hebrew can be numerically ambiguous unless a different verse gives context.
Or are you declaring this by your own authority?
Authority is given to scripture and to logical process. A single bad translation can sometimes lead us to an incorrect understanding.
From Gen 12:7
"לְזַ֨רְעֲךָ֔ (lə·zar·‘ă·ḵā)
Preposition-l | Noun - masculine singular construct | second person masculine
singular
Strong's 2233: Seed, fruit, plant, sowing-time, posterity"
From Gen 17:7
זַרְעֲךָ֧ (zar·‘ă·ḵā)
Noun - masculine singular construct | second person masculine
singular
Strong's 2233: Seed, fruit, plant, sowing-time, posterity
From Gen 17:7
וּֽלְזַרְעֲךָ֖ (ū·lə·zar·‘ă·ḵā)
Conjunctive waw, Preposition-l | Noun - masculine singular construct | second person masculine
singular
Strong's 2233: Seed, fruit, plant, sowing-time, posterity
If you look at KJV, you will see that each of these instances of "seed" retains the singular form that is evidence in the Hebrew and explained in Gal 3:16.
If I remember correctly the context of your questions I would say that Israel today is not "nation-less." Israel has been reborn as a State in the Middle East. It is a "nation."
Non-sequitur.
You proposed that the modern geopolitical state that called itself Israel was the fulfilment of the promise to Abraham for a nation. I asked the simple question of why you were excluding the possibility that the promised nation is or will be a Christian nation? You didn't answer the question. And you still clearly do not have an answer.
Your position so far seems to be "I feel that way, so that must be how it is."
A big part of your position is surely going to come from the incorrectly rendered "descendants" and the possible implication that is sometimes drawn for that to mean "all descendants" which is clearly incorrect. And the moment we address that misconception, what then? What does your interpretation use to substantiate its position? Nothing as far as I can tell, but I would gladly be proven wrong.
So in promising something to Abraham's Seed was not only promising a progeny, but also promising a Christian progeny
Let's take the sentence you wrote and replace "Abraham's seed" with "Christ" as Gal 3:16 shows us to do.
"So in promising something to [Christ] was not only promising [that Christ would come], but also promising [Christianity]:"
That is, Paul was limiting the promise to descendants of Abraham who would have faith in Christ.
The promise was very specifically directly to the singular "seed" that is Jesus Christ. If someone is in Christ, then they are indirectly part of the Spiritual seed of Abraham and heirs to the promise. If you change your wording to "spiritual descendants of Abraham" I agree with that. It is important not to confuse this with fleshly descendants of Abraham.
I do believe that conversion can take place in the afterlife for those who had never received a complete testimony to who Christ is.
You could argue that every nonChristian has not received the "complete" testimony of Christ. It might be simpler just to talk about it in terms of spiritual blindness being lifted such as Saul's transformation into Paul by revelation in Jesus Christ. I'm all for the perspective that there are potentially millions of Sauls destined to become Pauls. And who knows, maybe those type of transformations can occur after death.
I never said Christianity replaces Abraham's faith!
The faith of Abraham is Christianity. Israel does not replace the faith of Abraham.
those before and after Christ among the Jews are to be part of "Christ's Body." They are the "Seed" to whom the inheritance of Abraham is to be given.
Those in Christ, yes. But not all that call themselves Jews are Jews. Not all of Israel are Israel. Only a remnant of Israel will be saved. Only a remnant of Israel will turn to Christ. And when in Christ, everyone is together without distinction. No Jew or Gentile, for all are one in Christ.
And yes, Israel will adopt a Christian Constitution of sorts.
Spiritual Israel would be amalgamated into Christianity, just as Saul became Paul. No differently than a Moslem finding Christ as God the Son, or a Hindu finding Christ, etc. Traditions in many ways are preserved and celebrated together.
But Israel's promise is to be a Christian nation--a nation of faith. That has not happened yet
So you agree that the promised nation is Christian? That would mean that the current nonChristian society that you are referring to isn't the promised nation.
And again, why assume the geopolitical state that calls itself Israel would have anything to do with it?
Right. Not all nations would become [Christian], but some, like Israel, would.
"All Israel shall be saved" is not a reference to the modern geopolitical state that calls itself Israel, it is a reference to the Spiritual Israel that turns to Christ and of which Saul/Paul was part of. Paul wasn't a nation unto himself, but formed part of the Christian nation that started with the first church in Antioch. The descendants of people like Timothy would not be counted as Israel by the modern geopolitical state that calls itself Israel despite the fact that they can make the same claims that Paul did.
The spiritual inheritance was also given to European Civilization
Sure, and Asian ones, African ones, etc.
I do understand and disagree with your problem with the translation. I think the real issue here is *interpretation.*
I mean, until you actually address the points about the Hebrew source scripts, Strong's concordance, and the fact that Gal 3:16 explicitly states that the seed promises are all to Christ.... I don't believe that you actually understand because you can't seem to address the arguments in a direct and effective manner.