Hey, Dino.
So, I haven't read all of the posts here, but some claim, erroneously, in my opinion, that both Peter and John were illiterate, and here is what they base that belief on:
"Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were unlearned and ignorant men, they marvelled; and they took knowledge of them, that they had been with Jesus." (Acts 4:13)
The underlying Greek word which is here translated into English as "unlearned" is "agrammatos", and it could carry the meaning of "illiterate":
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g62/kjv/tr/0-1/
Similarly, the underlying Greek word which is here translated into English as "ignorant" is "idiōtēs", from which we derive our English word "idiot" (and we've got a lot of those here on this forum), and it too could carry the meaning of "illiterate":
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g2399/kjv/tr/0-1/
Personally, I don't believe that either Peter or John were illiterate.
Instead, I believe that this charge applied to the fact that they hadn't been formally trained in the Rabbinical schools.
A similar charge, I believe, was leveled against Jesus here:
John chapter 7
[15] And the Jews marvelled, saying, How knoweth this man letters, having never learned?
[16] Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.
[17] If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.
Jesus received no formal training from men (THANK GOD!), and, similarly, the Apostles received their training from Jesus himself.
Anyhow, that's how I see it.
I hope that this helps to answer your question.
So, I haven't read all of the posts here, but some claim, erroneously, in my opinion, that both Peter and John were illiterate, and here is what they base that belief on:
"Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were unlearned and ignorant men, they marvelled; and they took knowledge of them, that they had been with Jesus." (Acts 4:13)
The underlying Greek word which is here translated into English as "unlearned" is "agrammatos", and it could carry the meaning of "illiterate":
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g62/kjv/tr/0-1/
Similarly, the underlying Greek word which is here translated into English as "ignorant" is "idiōtēs", from which we derive our English word "idiot" (and we've got a lot of those here on this forum), and it too could carry the meaning of "illiterate":
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g2399/kjv/tr/0-1/
Personally, I don't believe that either Peter or John were illiterate.
Instead, I believe that this charge applied to the fact that they hadn't been formally trained in the Rabbinical schools.
A similar charge, I believe, was leveled against Jesus here:
John chapter 7
[15] And the Jews marvelled, saying, How knoweth this man letters, having never learned?
[16] Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.
[17] If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.
Jesus received no formal training from men (THANK GOD!), and, similarly, the Apostles received their training from Jesus himself.
Anyhow, that's how I see it.
I hope that this helps to answer your question.
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