Which Came First,

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Which Came First, “Faith Alone” or “Scripture Alone”?


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Which verse is that? Rationalizations 3:8?

Again, scripture is equated to God's word spoken to Abraham.

Galatians 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.
 
Faith come by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.
The issue was focused on "Scripture" -- the written Word of God. That came into existence around 1500 BC. So from about 4000 BC to 1500 BC faith came BEFORE Scripture.
 
The issue was focused on "Scripture" -- the written Word of God. That came into existence around 1500 BC. So from about 4000 BC to 1500 BC faith came BEFORE Scripture.

Scripture is equated to the word of God. See post #22
 
Amen. John 1:1. Hmmmmm....I wonder if you have that verse hanging around somewhere?
John1-1s.png

John 1:1
:)
 
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The word of God must come first or there is nothing to believe. But the thread is a little unorthodox and lends itself to some confusion.
Sometimes people are just different from us in experience and nature. As Christians we should always be ready to make accommodation for those who are different. Embrace the unity in Christ and the diversity of its expression.
 
"(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another; )" - Rom 2:13-15 KJV

This depends on how "Gentile" is being defined here. If we see Adam, Job, and Abram as Gentiles, and everyone else before the Abrahamic covenant, it is clearly the case that law has always been written in hearts. And by that an unmanifested form of scripture has been there since the first moment. But part of that law is to faith. You can take the position that neither "faith alone" nor "scripture alone" preceded the other.

Not to be a heretic in the "First Church of the Optional Poll" here, but I think that if the question is about Luther's "faith alone" and "scripture alone" that your poll is taking it out of context. They are apples and oranges.

Between scripture and built up doctrine, we should be able to find the answer in scripture alone. Between faith and works, salvation comes through faith alone. There is no competion between "faith alone" and "scripture alone."

You can agrue against sola scriptura and faith alone, but at least recognize that they are not competing concepts.

If you were to ask instead whether faith existed first, or whether the current Biblical canon in a written form existed first, it is compellingy the case that faith came first.
 
Scripture is equated to the word of God. See post #22
You still don't get it. It was Jesus who appeared as "the Word of God" or "the Word of the LORD" to Abraham!

Now notice this very carefully: After these things the Word of the LORD came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward... And, behold, the Word of the LORD came unto him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir. (Gen 15:1,4)

The Word of the LORD is clearly a person in these two verses. And He presents Himself as GOD. Since no man has seen God the Father at any time, it was the pre-incarnate Christ as "the Word of the LORD" who appeared to Abraham. And it was Jesus who said "Before Abraham was I AM".

There was no written Bible ("Scripture") for 2,500 years. "Scripture" means "sacred writings". So faith came first, just like the chicken came before the egg (when God created the birds).
 
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