can someone explain why do we christians say Jesus is God himself

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Webers.Home

Well-known member
May 28, 2018
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John 10:30 “I and my Father are one.”

The Greek word translated "one" in that verse is somewhat ambiguous; for
example:

"The glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one,
even as we are one: (John 17:22)

"Now the God of patience and consolation grant you to be likeminded one
toward another according to Christ Jesus: that ye may with one mind and
one mouth glorify God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." (Rom
15:5-6)

In other words: the word can be understood as a unit of 1, but also a unity
of thought and purpose.

Personally I don't recommend using John 10:30 to prove Jesus' deified
status when there are other passages better suited to that purpose.
_
 

oyster67

Senior Member
May 24, 2014
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In other words: the word can be understood as a unit of 1, but also a unity
of thought and purpose.
Sounds like a good way to express Trinity concept. I would use both understandings as well. (y)
 
Aug 10, 2023
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Notice, in the Greek manuscripts we do not find the Greek word “ ONE “ in Mat 18:5

The Trinitarian Translators have changed the Greek word εν - IN “ into the word ONE / 1 65 total times

The Greek word “ εν - IN “ is found 2,808 total times in the Greek manuscripts
changing this word into the word “ ONE65 total times

However, the Greek word “ εν - IN “ is not the Greek word “ ONE

Mat 18:5
και ουκ ετι ειμι εν τω κοσμω και ουτοι εν τω κοσμω εισιν και εγω προς σε ερχομαι πατερ αγιε τηρησον αυτους εν τω ονοματι σου ους δεδωκας μοι ινα ωσιν “ εν - IN “ καθως ημεις

The Greek word “ εν - IN “ is found in the Greek New Testament Manuscripts 2,808 total times
that’s - - two thousand eight hundred and eight - - total times

yet
In the Trinitarian translation - the Greek word “ εν - IN “ is translated into the word ONE / 1 65 total times
Let’s take a look at the manuscripts in - Mat 18:5

The Translation says
Mat 18:5 - And whoso shall receive ONE such little child in my name receiveth me.

:5
και And - ος whom - εαν if - δεξηται receive - παιδιον a child - τοιουτον such as - εν in - επι upon - τω the - ονοματι name of - μου me - εμε I - δεχεται receive

meaning -
AND WHOM IF RECEIVE A CHILD SUCH AS IN UPON THE NAME OF ME, I RECEIVE


 
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Let’s look at the verses in context, what exactly is Jesus saying

:4 - Whosoever therefore shall humble himself as this little child, the same is greatest in the kingdom of
heaven.

:5 - AND WHOM IF RECEIVE A CHILD SUCH AS IN UPON THE NAME OF ME, I RECEIVE

:6 - But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and that he were drowned in the depth of the sea.


If you pay attention to the translation - you will see that the original message has been altered. Jesus is saying 3 things here in the manuscripts

1. to humble as a child - is greatest
2. to receive a child in upon his name - Jesus receives those whom also receive the child in upon his name
2. to offend a child whom believes in Jesus - better that they hang a millstone around the neck and drowned in the sea

the Trinitarian Translators changed the Greek word “ εν - IN “ into the word ONE / 1 and changed the words of Jesus, from saying

" Jesus - " I receive them, whom receive children, whom humble as children "

changing this into saying

" those receiving children, humbling as children , receiveth me.

in other words Jesus the one receiving / accepting YOU - in the manuscripts and not YOU whom are accepting Jesus in this manuscript context
.

The translators go through the manuscripts altering and changing the Greek word “ εν - IN “ - into the Greek word “ ONE “ 65 times out of the total 2,808 times the word is used in the manuscripts.

In fact, Trinitarians have made - up, invented and created a Greek grammar rule to insinuate and introduce that the Greek word
εν “ - can be used to also mean the definition of the word - “ ONE “ just because the translators made these translation alterations.

Every single last time Trinitarian translators do this, without exception - the wording and sentence structure and wording order is changed to accommodate inserting the word “ ONE “ into the passage and changing the Greek word “ εν - IN “ - into the Greek word “ ONE “ and the original meaning of the manuscript is also altered and erased in it's originality.


meaning, every single last time - they move the words around and shuffle the sentence structure, adding and deleting and changing words to accommodate the insertion of the word - “ ONE “ changing the Greek word εν - IN “ - into the Greek word “ ONE65 times out of the total 2,808 times

completely changing, altering and manipulating the original message of the manuscript message - the Greek word εν - INwas a major word that the Translators focused upon in their concentration for alteration and manipulation to render this word as a universal word to orbit the Trinity insertion. - deluding and imposing upon the original context.
 
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Joh 17:11 was accidently used as the Greek verse I posted in one instance in Greek

and it should have been Mat 18:5 in Greek - the translation I provided is is still correct but in the beginning of my post i did accidently use the Greek passage of - Joh 17:11

this is about Mat 18:5

και ος εαν δεξηται παιδιον τοιουτον εν επι τω ονοματι μου εμε δεχεται
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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This would make God a Trinity - God is not a trinity.
Oh so we have another ANTI-TRINITARIAN laboring hard to disprove the Trinity! More foolishness with the veneer of learning.

I am not sure what "heaven believe" means but if you do not believe that Jesus is fully God and distinct from the Father, you are in a heap of trouble. And if you do not believe that the Holy Spirit is also God, then you are in fact an unbeliever.

Satan hates the fact that Jesus of Nazareth was (and is) fully God and fully sinless Man. When he encountered Christ in the wilderness. he came up with "IF THOU BE THE SON OF GOD..." To the Jews "the Son of God" = GOD, therefore they accused Christ of blasphemy and sought to stone Him. But Satan also knew this fact, and tried to trick Christ to prove that He is the Son of God. Therefore whether you say "Son of God" or "God the Son" it means the same thing.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
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Notice, in the Greek manuscripts we do not find the Greek word “ ONE “ in Mat 18:5

The Trinitarian Translators have changed the Greek word εν - IN “ into the word ONE / 1

This isn't true. Both words ONE εἷς and IN ἐπί are in the verse. This verse also has nothing to do with whether God is a Trinity or not so it's weird to bring it up, and weirder to get the entire claim wrong anyways.
 
Aug 10, 2023
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:5
και And - ος whom - εαν if - δεξηται receive - παιδιον a child - τοιουτον such as - εν in - επι upon - τω the - ονοματι name of - μου me - εμε - I = egō - δεχεται receive

I = egō - - - RECEIVE

In fact the Greek word “ I - εμε - egō “ is found in the Greek manuscripts 368 total times, this is the Greek word meaning “ I “ - however, the Translators change this word - “ εμε - egō “ into the word “ ME “ only 2 times in the Strong concordance.

Before Abraham was ____ egō εγω - I - - ειμι eimi - AM
 
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in Mat 18:5

και ος εαν δεξηται παιδιον τοιουτον εν επι τω ονοματι μου εμε δεχεται

can you please point out in this manuscript where we find the Greek word

εἷς - one

the word " εἷς - one " simply is nowhere in Mat 18:5


it is most likely in the Strongs Concordance for this verse but the Strongs Concordance was not made to reflect the manuscript

the Strongs Concordance was made to support the translation and not a part of the manuscript original wording - but only how the translators worded the translation

this threw me off for a few months when I began studying many years ago. taking a deeper search into the MANUSCRIPTS is the original message . i completely understand why you would think this. I did very same exact same thing -

i totally relate to what you are saying,
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
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in Mat 18:5

και ος εαν δεξηται παιδιον τοιουτον εν επι τω ονοματι μου εμε δεχεται

can you please point out in this manuscript where we find the Greek word

εἷς - one

the word " εἷς - one " simply is nowhere in Mat 18:5

It's there. It can be written as HEIS or HEN, same word meaning "one". The other word for "in" is also there as I said.

G1520
εἷς
heis
hice
(Including the neuter [etc.] ἕν hen); a primary numeral; one: - a (-n, -ny, certain), + abundantly, man, one (another), only, other, some. See also G1527, G3367, G3391, G3762.
Total KJV occurrences: 272


https://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/18-5.htm



Matthew 18 - Click for Chapter
5 2532 [e]
5 kai
5 καὶ
5 And
5 Conj

3739 [e]
hos
ὃς
whoever
RelPro-NMS

1437 [e]
ean
ἐὰν
if
Conj

1209 [e]
dexētai
δέξηται
shall receive
V-ASM-3S

1520 [e]
hen
ἓν
one

Adj-ANS

3813 [e]
paidion
παιδίον
little child
N-ANS

5108 [e]
toiouto
τοιοῦτο
such
DPro-ANS

1909 [e]
epi
ἐπὶ
in
Prep


3588 [e]

τῷ
the
Art-DNS

3686 [e]
onomati
ὀνόματί
name
N-DNS

1473 [e]
mou
μου ,
of Me
PPro-G1S

1473 [e]
eme
ἐμὲ
Me
PPro-A1S

1209 [e]
dechetai
δέχεται .
receives
V-PIM/P-3S
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,112
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Why do many violate Greek translations? LOL, it is like discussing with JW about chapters 1:15-18 of Colossians. They read it from the NWT where they added the word " other" after the word "ALL," then in their own Greek translation, "other" is not there. It was added. LOL./
 

Webers.Home

Well-known member
May 28, 2018
5,894
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Oregon
.
Below is the text of Col 1:16-17 quoted verbatim from the Watchtower
Society's New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures ©1969.

"Because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens
and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter
whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All
[other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before
all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to
exist."

The word "other" is in brackets. This alert readers that "other" is not in the
Greek manuscript; viz: the Society's translators took the liberty to pencil it
in; which gives the impression that God's son was His first creation; and
thereafter, the Son created everything else.

NOTE: I heard it from a JW that the Society's translators added "other"
because that's what Col 1:16-17 means to say even though it doesn't say so
in writing. In other words; that portion of the Society's Bible is an
interpretation rather than a translation.

One day, a pair of Watchtower missionaries came to my door consisting of
an experienced worker and a trainee. I immediately began subjecting the
trainee to a line of questioning that homed in on the Society's rather
dishonest habit of embellishing the Bible in order to reinforce its line of
thinking.

I had him read the Society's text of Col 1:16-17 and then pointed out that
the word "other" is in brackets to alert him to the fact that "other" is not in
the Greek manuscript. The experienced worker corroborated my statement.

I then proceeded to have the trainee read the passage sans "other". It
comes out like this:

"By means of him all things were created in the heavens and upon the earth,
the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are
thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All things have been
created through him and for him. Also, he is before all things and by means
of him all things were made to exist."

The trainee's eyes really lit up; and he actually grinned with delight to
discover that Col 1:16-17 reveals something quite different than what he
was led to believe.

Had I pressed the attack; I would've pointed out that the Society is
inconsistent. They really should've penciled "other" into John 1:3 to make it
read like this:

"All [other] things came into existence through him, and apart from him not
even one [other] thing came into existence."

FYI: The 1984 revised version of the New World Translation omits brackets
around the word "other" in Col 1:16-17. However, it's readily seen from the
Watchtower Society's Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek
Scriptures ©1969 that "other" is nowhere to be found in the Greek text.
Caveat Lector.
_
 
E

evyaniy

Guest
well, if you want to stretch the limits of human comprehension, this thread is a nice exercise.

And yet, Salvation is available to each of us through faith in the Son and what He did to save us.

That is the beauty of it. Complete understanding may be out of our reach but forgiveness of our sins is available by believing in Him.
 
E

evyaniy

Guest
Romans 11:33

O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of EL(Theos, Elohim, YAH, God)! how unsearchable are His judgments, and His ways past finding out!
 
Jun 20, 2022
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in Mat 18:5

και ος εαν δεξηται παιδιον τοιουτον εν επι τω ονοματι μου εμε δεχεται

can you please point out in this manuscript where we find the Greek word

εἷς - one

the word " εἷς - one " simply is nowhere in Mat 18:5


it is most likely in the Strongs Concordance for this verse but the Strongs Concordance was not made to reflect the manuscript

the Strongs Concordance was made to support the translation and not a part of the manuscript original wording - but only how the translators worded the translation

this threw me off for a few months when I began studying many years ago. taking a deeper search into the MANUSCRIPTS is the original message . i completely understand why you would think this. I did very same exact same thing -

i totally relate to what you are saying,
which Bible Translation and which Lexicon are You using?
 
Aug 10, 2023
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Yes, O thank you so very much for taking time to reply to me.

I really do sincerely appreciate the opportunity to learn, discuss and share my faith and understand of what I believe to be the original manuscript message with yourselves and all believers.

For the manuscripts that I am using - I look at all of the Greek manuscripts but mostly rely upon the Textus Receptus as main source.

For the translation - I do not use any translation of the scriptures but rather I look directly to the manuscripts themselves as they are transmitted in the original words and meaning and context

I wholeheartedly believe beyond any doubt that all manuscripts are exactly the same in attention, respect to and regarding specifically everything pertaining to the topics and subjects orbiting the many, many things / faiths that all denominations disagree and differ upon

I believe that all manuscripts are all exactly the same regarding the topics and subjects orbiting around the different " Translations "

there are only a small percentage of variants between all of these families and none of the variants change the core principles of what all Christian organizations disagree about nor is the reason as to why the difference between the manuscripts exist

- but the difference in faith and translation is in how the translators deviate in a conscience effort / willingly, to falsely and untruly mistranslate and change the original message.

I believe that this claim, - that different manuscripts family types have causes contradicting translations and denominational differences of faith - this is truly one of the greatest magnificent untruths and dishonest false and literally foolish claims that exist within some of the Christians that make these assertions.


During the Hellenistic period (3rd century BC), Aristophanes of Byzantium introduced the breathings—marks of aspiration (the aspiration however being already noted on certain inscriptions, not by means of diacritics { accent markings " but by regular letters or modified letters)—and the accents, of which the use started to spread, to become standard in the Middle Ages. It was not until the 2nd century AD that accents and breathings appeared sporadically in papyri. The need for the diacritics arose from the gradual divergence between spelling and pronunciation.

I do not see evidence in ancient Greek manuscripts nor believe that the Greek word - " ἓν - Hen - one " was introduced in the manuscripts of the bible when originally authored - this may have been a idea or or a school of thought as Greek advanced but this idea was made as legitimate by the Trinitarian copyist who made copies of the manuscripts hundreds of years after the Greek manuscripts were originally written

and they incorporated the grammar rule of using the original Greek word " εν in / inside " to be converted as " ἓν - Hen - one " for the passages and places where this word could accommodate a replacement and then switched and moved and shuffled the words around, added and removed words to make the passages conform ... many times changing the original message and context and meaning of the passages in their original intent.


Mat 5:29 - original Greek New Testament manuscripts

ει If - δε also - ο the - οφθαλμος eye - σου yours - ο that is - δεξιος right - σκανδαλιζει offends - σε you - εξελε take out - αυτον it - και and - βαλε cast away - απο from - σου you -

συμφερει good - γαρ for - σοι you - ινα that - αποληται perished - εν in - των the - μελων members - σου your - και also - μη not - ολον wholy - το the - σωμα body - σου your - βληθη cast - εις into - γεενναν hell

meaning =

IF ALSO THE EYE YOURS THAT IS RIGHT OFFENDS YOU TAKE OUT IT AND CAST AWAY FROM YOUR GOOD

FOR YOU THAT PERISH IN THE MEMBERS

YOU ALSO, NOT WHOLLY THE BODY YOU ARE CAST INTO HELL


Trinitarian mistranslation
:29
And if thy right eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: for it is profitable for thee that ONE of thy members should perish, and not that thy whole body should be cast into hell.


 
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the Greek word " εν in / inside " pertains to material, physical, literal objects and beings, to be inside something and this word also pertains to sentence structure - by using " in ' for purposes of sentences, as using this word " in " to focus and narrow upon a single / singular specific. point or component or context within a paragraph or sentence.

we would say - In this _ or _ within that is my point or the importance - and in this manner was the word " in " used in ancient Greek to use this word for indicating a singular narrowing and a focusing of importance within a sentences conversation - simply to denote a one singular highlight or significant point or element of a sentence within the sentence.

in other words - I would say this and say that and also say all of this too but - " within / in " - this ( AS - in this alone } _ is the meaning and point and singular , one importance.

I believe this is how the word HEN was used and it was not written by a character or accent marking but understood to those knowledgeable in Greek sentence and that that structuring did not exist until the 2nd century AD when accents and breathings appeared sporadically in papyri

made by Trinitarians making copies of the original Greek manuscripts - as they abused and over - exaggerated the concept to wile molding faith instead of translating
 
Jun 20, 2022
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the Greek word " εν in / inside " pertains to material, physical, literal objects and beings, to be inside something and this word also pertains to sentence structure - by using " in ' for purposes of sentences, as using this word " in " to focus and narrow upon a single / singular specific. point or component or context within a paragraph or sentence.


we would say - In this _ or _ within that is my point or the importance - and in this manner was the word " in " used in ancient Greek to use this word for indicating a singular narrowing and a focusing of importance within a sentences conversation - simply to denote a one singular highlight or significant point or element of a sentence within the sentence.

in other words - I would say this and say that and also say all of this too but - " within / in " - this ( AS - in this alone } _ is the meaning and point and singular , one importance.

I believe this is how the word HEN was used and it was not written by a character or accent marking but understood to those knowledgeable in Greek sentence and that that structuring did not exist until the 2nd century AD when accents and breathings appeared sporadically in papyri

made by Trinitarians making copies of the original Greek manuscripts - as they abused and over - exaggerated the concept to wile molding faith instead of translating
in your own view and words, who is Father/Word/Holy Spirit, to you?
 
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Yes


in my own view and words " who is Father/Word/Holy Spirit " to me

Father is the God whom is a Spirit of Holy whom has declared by his anointing Word that - he has begotten / born me to be one with him the God in - he is within me and I live to him

that is what the God has done - your question on a human level " God's power and anointing " is Father/Word/Holy Spirit

Father/Word/Holy Spirit - is " God's power and anointing " manifested to man through the eyes of man and in union with spirit of man