Luke 7:36-38

[Anni]

KJV
36 And one of the Pharisees desired him that he would eat with him. And he went into the Pharisee's house, and sat down to meat.
37 And, behold, a woman in the city, which was a sinner, when she knew that Jesus sat at meat in the Pharisee's house, brought an alabaster box of ointment,
38 And stood at his feet behind him weeping, and began to wash his feet with tears, and did wipe them with the hairs of her head, and kissed his feet, and anointed them with the ointment.

NIV
36 When one of the Pharisees invited Jesus to have dinner with him, he went to the Pharisee’s house and reclined at the table.
37 A woman in that town who lived a sinful life learned that Jesus was eating at the Pharisee’s house, so she came there with an alabaster jar of perfume.
38 As she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them.

I was asked how, if the lady was stood BEHIND Jesus, she could possibly be able to wet His feet with her tears.
The best answer I could think of was that in those times people lay on their sides to eat, reclined.
Her answer was "Well, the KJV says Jesus was sat down."
We both have autism so clarification would be helpful. I'm sticking with "recline" & she's asked me why the KJV says "sat" and if it's wrong.
Is it in the translation?
Any thoughts?

 

[Anni]

In researching this query I learned a lot about Greek & Roman culture at meal times. Also the Last Supper.
Apparently, the Greek word & its variations (translated in some Bibles as sit/seated/sat) means only to recline, never to sit.
Amazing how one word can lead to so much knowledge.

https://www.julianspriggs.co.uk/Pages/Reclining

 

[Dino246]

Welcome to CC...

It's a good idea to search out the meaning of the original-language words. We can get hung up easily on English translations that may (unintentionally) distort the original meaning. Bear in mind especially with the KJV that words may have had slightly different meanings in 1600 than they do today; witness the use of "meat" in the passage you cite. To them, it meant "food" but to us, it means "animal flesh for consumption".

 

[oyster67]

We both have autism so clarification would be helpful. I'm sticking with "recline" & she's asked me why the KJV says "sat" and if it's wrong.
Is it in the translation?
Any thoughts?

Yes. I have a thought.

It is not necessary to go over everything with a micron microscope, even if you have autism. The point of this event is revealed in the context...

Luke 7:47
“Wherefore I say unto thee, Her sins, which are many, are forgiven; for she loved much: but to whom little is forgiven, the same loveth little.”

It is so much like the Pharisees of Jesus' day to not see the forest for the trees.

 

[Anni]

Yes. I have a thought.

It is not necessary to go over everything with a micron microscope, even if you have autism. The point of this event is revealed in the context...

Luke 7:47
“Wherefore I say unto thee, Her sins, which are many, are forgiven; for she loved much: but to whom little is forgiven, the same loveth little.”

It is so much like the Pharisees of Jesus' day to not see the forest for the trees.

The Pharisees heard the words directly from Jesus' mouth so their failure to understand is deplorable.
I have a passion for words & language. It's a gift and part of my autism.
The query was raised to me & I endeavoured to provide a comprehensive answer. The lady asking was satisfied with the answer, her faith has grown & we have both been edified. We both understand the meaning of the chapter.

Welcome to CC...

It's a good idea to search out the meaning of the original-language words. We can get hung up easily on English translations that may (unintentionally) distort the original meaning. Bear in mind especially with the KJV that words may have had slightly different meanings in 1600 than they do today; witness the use of "meat" in the passage you cite. To them, it meant "food" but to us, it means "animal flesh for consumption".

I was using the KJV, the lady only uses the NIV. We take it in turns to read.
In the KJV the way of eating a meal (sat at meat) is described in a way that Tudor people would understand, they wouldn't have been aware of customs in Christ's day.
The NIV is a modern translation and uses the word "reclined" as it's addressed to a modern audience, Texts have been analysed, more have been discovered and better approved translations made.

I thoroughly enjoyed researching this Berean-style. A pastor told his flock to always "get into the nitty-gritty" of Scripture.

I'd never heard of a "micron microscope", now I know a bit about them. Awesome. Thanks, brother!

 

[Nehemiah6]

We both have autism so clarification would be helpful. I'm sticking with "recline" & she's asked me why the KJV says "sat" and if it's wrong.

In order to recline one must first sit down.

 

[oyster67]

In order to recline one must first sit down.

... ... Solomonaic wisdom right here on CC from our very own @Nehemiah6 !

 

[oyster67]

In order to recline one must first sit down.

Can I use that for my new sig?

 

[Nehemiah6]

Can I use that for my new sig?

Sure. You can give it a deeper meaning. But it is ludicrous for someone to even bring this up..

 

[Adstar]

KJV
36 And one of the Pharisees desired him that he would eat with him. And he went into the Pharisee's house, and sat down to meat.
37 And, behold, a woman in the city, which was a sinner, when she knew that Jesus sat at meat in the Pharisee's house, brought an alabaster box of ointment,
38 And stood at his feet behind him weeping, and began to wash his feet with tears, and did wipe them with the hairs of her head, and kissed his feet, and anointed them with the ointment.

NIV
36 When one of the Pharisees invited Jesus to have dinner with him, he went to the Pharisee’s house and reclined at the table.
37 A woman in that town who lived a sinful life learned that Jesus was eating at the Pharisee’s house, so she came there with an alabaster jar of perfume.
38 As she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them.

I was asked how, if the lady was stood BEHIND Jesus, she could possibly be able to wet His feet with her tears.
The best answer I could think of was that in those times people lay on their sides to eat, reclined.
Her answer was "Well, the KJV says Jesus was sat down."
We both have autism so clarification would be helpful. I'm sticking with "recline" & she's asked me why the KJV says "sat" and if it's wrong.
Is it in the translation?
Any thoughts?

Why do you assume her hears got onto His feet by falling on them?????

She has her hands you know.. People wipe their tears away with their hands you know... like most times yeah?? So crying... Hands gather the tears.. hands then go down to feet.. hands smear tears over feet.. So simple..

 

[oyster67]

But it is ludicrous for someone to even bring this up..

This is the kind of poo-poo the atheists have to resort to feeding on in order to get enough to fill the chapter on "higher criticism".

 

[Anni]

Why do you assume her hears got onto His feet by falling on them?????

She has her hands you know.. People wipe their tears away with their hands you know... like most times yeah?? So crying... Hands gather the tears.. hands then go down to feet.. hands smear tears over feet.. So simple..

Thanks for your observation, it's always good to share a personal view.
The question was a sincere one asked by a person I love very much as a sister in Christ.
I don't think there's anything further to learn on the topic.

 

[Moses_Young]

A pastor told his flock to always "get into the nitty-gritty" of Scripture.

I fully agree with this philosophy and method. Proverbs 30:5-6

Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.
Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.