The Error of KJV-Onlyism

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Lanolin

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what, Hosea married a prostitute, why do people think he didnt?
In KJV whoredom or whore means prostitute or someone promiscuous. Whore is just an old word for that but people still use it today. Also harlot.

Just use a Bible dictionary if there are words you dont know or arent sure of.
 

Sipsey

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Sep 27, 2018
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If they did not know this, being the world's best translators the world has ever seen, on a God level according to you......How did you find out?
Some folks build a ladder of words in hopes of being closer to Heaven.
 
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The problem in that thinking is believing that the church was deceived for hundreds of years following the wrong or extremely less correct Bible for hundreds of years when times were more simple than they are today. You would have to claim that the church was deceived into believing 1 John 5:7 is in their Bible for hundreds of years and that the removal of "fornication" in their Bible would be a good thing. They would be deceived into thinking that God was telling Hosea to marry a woman who was a people of idolatry rather than God telling Hosea to marry a prostitute (like in Modern Bibles). They would be deceived into thinking God was telling Abraham to offer his son Isaac instead of believing God was telling Abraham to sacrifice his Son like Modern Bibles say. Which is better? One is straining at gnats in the KJB (attacking minor supposed errors in it) over swallowing a camel by accepting all the false doctrines in Modern Bibles.
I disagree. The 1611 KJV - btw the KJV itself has had many versions - can be used as a base, but because both language and scholarship has moved on since then, a 2033 King of Kings Jesus Bible could definitely be much better than it was. Of course, it goes without saying, that Spirit-Filled and Conservative Bible Scholars would have to be leading that translation. But it definitely could be improved, and the KJV is not anything special, but one of the best available translations at the time. Also, as for the Church not being able to be deceived for centuries, the 7 Deuterocanonical books that are there today in Catholic Bibles but not in Protestant Bibles were there in the Bible from around 382 AD (when Pope St. Damasus fixed the Canon, and St. Jerome's Latin Vulgate version was fixed), so was the Church deceived for millenia according to you? I don't think you want to use that argument. I'm in favor of Christian Scholars collaborating and improving the translation. And yes, I think the Holy Name Bibles, you can use Holy Name NKJV Bibles if you want, have got that part right.
 

Dino246

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Again, this really doesn’t matter. John the Baptist said he was not Elijah and yet Jesus said John the Baptist was Elijah (i.e., John came in the spirit of Elijah). In other words, there are times a believer can operate and think by God and His working and there other times in their life that this is not case. This can even be without their knowledge.

So God used the KJV translators to preserve God’s words and they did not know it just as John did not know he was Elijah as Jesus claimed.
Biased speculation at best, ridiculous cultic delusion at worst.
 

Lanolin

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um ok

People taking it on another level here. Gods words have always been preserved, somewhere in the world. Dead sea scrolls anyone. Mass printing books. In Libraries. New translations. Online. Audio books. Its just some people ignore them.

The ten commandments were on tablets, written in stone by the finger of God and Moses broke them didnt he so he went up the mountain again and got new ones.

The Israelites were told to tell them to their children and write them on the doorposts of their house. There is also the oral tradition, but scripture that is WRITTEN down will be preserved a lot longer than oral words that need to be recalled from memory. However we believers are meant to write them on our hearts.

In several instances in the Bible, was it Nehemiah and they were building the temple. they found the old scrolls that were forgotten and taught the law again. There was also generational forgetting of what God had said. A famine of the word. Because people were not reading it.

The gospels were to from four different point of view. If you didnt have one, you could hear if from three others.
 

Magenta

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Jul 3, 2015
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what, Hosea married a prostitute, why do people think he didnt?
They have fallen into KJ onlyist deception:

When I rededicated my life back to Christ back in 2010-2011 I did listen to a few of Mounce's teachings on the New Testament.
I stopped listening to him when he said that God told Hosea to marry a prostitute.
Of course this is the rendering in Modern Bibles but not in the King James Bible.

One does not understand the good nature of God if they believe God would tell somebody to do something evil.
Isaiah 20:1 In the year that Tartan came unto Ashdod, (when Sargon the king of Assyria sent him,) and fought
against Ashdod, and took it; 2 At the same time spake the LORD by Isaiah the son of Amoz, saying, Go and
loose the sackcloth from off thy loins, and put off thy shoe from thy foot. And he did so, walking naked
and barefoot. 3 And the LORD said, Like as my servant Isaiah hath walked naked and barefoot three years
for a sign and wonder upon Egypt and upon Ethiopia;


B_H, I suppose you would say that was evil, also.
 

Lanolin

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I disagree. The 1611 KJV - btw the KJV itself has had many versions - can be used as a base, but because both language and scholarship has moved on since then, a 2033 King of Kings Jesus Bible could definitely be much better than it was. Of course, it goes without saying, that Spirit-Filled and Conservative Bible Scholars would have to be leading that translation. But it definitely could be improved, and the KJV is not anything special, but one of the best available translations at the time. Also, as for the Church not being able to be deceived for centuries, the 7 Deuterocanonical books that are there today in Catholic Bibles but not in Protestant Bibles were there in the Bible from around 382 AD (when Pope St. Damasus fixed the Canon, and St. Jerome's Latin Vulgate version was fixed), so was the Church deceived for millenia according to you? I don't think you want to use that argument. I'm in favor of Christian Scholars collaborating and improving the translation. And yes, I think the Holy Name Bibles, you can use Holy Name NKJV Bibles if you want, have got that part right.
why 2033 is it going to take 10'years or so?
Eastern and western churches were split early on but didnt officially until 1054. Because of the language difference and politics.

One was in latin the other was greek. The extra books in the Bible are just extra reading most people knew that, but some people who werent careful in their reading did not, just as extra gnostic gospels were floating around in the early church. When people add or take away from scripture its always going to be a problem and so you need to be sure you have a full translation.

You will grow more spiritually if you have the right tools. I think the KJV has done a tremendous amount of legwork in getting the Bible into the hands of ordinary readers esp in English so needs to be respected for that part, even if its not the Bible you personally prefer.
 

Bible_Highlighter

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Nov 28, 2023
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what, Hosea married a prostitute, why do people think he didnt?
In KJV whoredom or whore means prostitute or someone promiscuous. Whore is just an old word for that but people still use it today. Also harlot.

Just use a Bible dictionary if there are words you dont know or arent sure of.
I am greatly disturbed by your defense of something God would never tell a person to do.
The KJV says "a wife of whoredoms and a children of whoredoms." Obviously, the children are not prostitutes. So this means God is saying, "Go and marry a wife of a people who are into idolatry." Whoredom in the Bible is used about idolatry in several places in the Old Testament. So she would have to agree to serve the Living God and no longer serve her false gods if she were to marry Hosea. Yes, later in the story she became a prostitute. But that is not how she started out.

Not only that, but it would contradict Scripture, as well. This is because folks have fallen for what the Modern Greek Teachers have said.

Behold what the Scriptures say on this matter:

1 Corinthians 6:13-15
13 "...Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
14 And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid."

So as we can see here in the New Testament God says we cannot fornicate because we would be joining ourselves with many members (many other people who have sex) of an harlot (prostitute).

There are sins that are exceptionally wrong in God's view.
It's why He destroyed two cities by fire and brimstone.
The sin of sodomy was exceptionally was exceptionally wrong in His sight.
Hence, why the two cities were destroyed by a miraculous miracle from God.
 

Bible_Highlighter

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They have fallen into KJ onlyist deception:


Isaiah 20:1In the year that Tartan came unto Ashdod, (when Sargon the king of Assyria sent him,) and fought
against Ashdod, and took it; 2At the same time spake the LORD by Isaiah the son of Amoz, saying, Go and
loose the sackcloth from off thy loins, and put off thy shoe from thy foot. And he did so, walking naked
and barefoot. 3And the LORD said, Like as my servant Isaiah hath walked naked and barefoot three years
for a sign and wonder upon Egypt and upon Ethiopia;


I suppose you would say that was evil, also.
For clarification, I should have said that this appears in the rendering in certain Modern Bibles like the NLT, Amplified Bible, and the Berean Standard Bible. Also, all those who teach Greek to correct the King James Bible will say that this is the case. But I know. Morals have to be shut down to believe such nonsense. Read 1 Corinthians 6:13-15. You don't even know that this would contradict God's very own words.
 

Magenta

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Jul 3, 2015
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For clarification, I should have said that this appears in the rendering in certain Modern Bibles like the NLT, Amplified Bible, and the Berean Standard Bible. Also, all those who teach Greek to correct the King James Bible will say that this is the case. But I know. Morals have to be shut down to believe such nonsense. Read 1 Corinthians 6:13-15. You don't even know that this would contradict God's very own words.
I don't know what you are trying to say here.

I do understand that you deny what is written in the Bible.

The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of
whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord.
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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Here's the first part of John 3 from the original 1611 KJV:

KJV 1611 John-Chapter-2-3 alt readings.jpg

Note the two sidenotes saying, "or, from above" for "again" (againe). The modern printings of the KJV exclude these marginal notes, giving an artificial sense of certainty.
 

Lanolin

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Have people ever seen the movie Pretty Woman. Basically a modern day retelling of Hosea

Though seriously children of whoredoms is just meaning love children, or children of those who werent married or of adultery. Yes its idolatry but its quite specifically promiscuous.

That Hosea later became a harlot (or prositute) is what people remember about the story and that God had told Hosea to marry her. So am not sure why you up in arms about that.

Jesus had a few prostitutes in his lineage...Rahab, Tamar, and of course...Mary Magdalene was a known sinner and people didnt like that he was friends with her or forgiven her. She wasnt specifically idolatrous. And woman at the well who had five husbands....
 

Lanolin

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I am greatly disturbed by your defense of something God would never tell a person to do.
The KJV says "a wife of whoredoms and a children of whoredoms." Obviously, the children are not prostitutes. So this means God is saying, "Go and marry a wife of a people who are into idolatry." Whoredom in the Bible is used about idolatry in several places in the Old Testament. So she would have to agree to serve the Living God and no longer serve her false gods if she were to marry Hosea. Yes, later in the story she became a prostitute. But that is not how she started out.

Not only that, but it would contradict Scripture, as well. This is because folks have fallen for what the Modern Greek Teachers have said.

Behold what the Scriptures say on this matter:

1 Corinthians 6:13-15
13 "...Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.
14 And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid."

So as we can see here in the New Testament God says we cannot fornicate because we would be joining ourselves with many members (many other people who have sex) of an harlot (prostitute).

There are sins that are exceptionally wrong in God's view.
It's why He destroyed two cities by fire and brimstone.
The sin of sodomy was exceptionally was exceptionally wrong in His sight.
Hence, why the two cities were destroyed by a miraculous miracle from God.
Um God wasnt telling Hosea to fornicate.
 

Lanolin

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God didnt tell Gomer that she had to agree not to serve false Gods before marrying Hosea.
The whole point of the story is that Hosea had to woo her and bring her back to the Lord by forgiving her.
 

Dino246

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When I rededicated my life back to Christ back in 2010-2011 I did listen to a few of Mounce's teachings on the New Testament.
I stopped listening to him when he said that God told Hosea to marry a prostitute.
Of course this is the rendering in Modern Bibles but not in the King James Bible.
One does not understand the good nature of God if they believe God would tell somebody to do something evil.
Hosea 1:2 KJV The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord.

"whoredoms", Strong's Dictionary:
2183 (Hebrew form), zanuwn, zawnoon, from 2181; adultery fig. idolatry:--whoredom.

One does not understand Scripture if they allow their moral outrage to exclude the obvious meaning of the text.
 

Magenta

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Jul 3, 2015
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Hosea 1:2 KJV The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife
of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord.

"whoredoms", Strong's Dictionary:
2183 (Hebrew form), zanuwn, zawnoon, from 2181; adultery fig. idolatry:--whoredom.

One does not understand Scripture if they allow their moral outrage to exclude the obvious meaning of the text.
It seems that for him to accept what the text actually says, he must ascribe evil to God's character .:oops::censored::cry:
 

Bible_Highlighter

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Biased speculation at best, ridiculous cultic delusion at worst.
Look. We do not believe the KJB because a light shined down upon it from our window. Neither did we just randomly select it, either. As I mentioned to you before, there are 101 Reasons to believe in the KJB and 10 main categories. We are not without our good reasons. But your reasons for Textual Criticism are lacking by comparison. You just believe a THEORY that the scholars say that just because the oldest manuscripts automatically equates with it being an accurate copy of the originals. It's just a theory. Besides, Paul said that the Scriptures were being corrupted during his time. You also have to believe the church was deceived into following the wrong Bible for hundreds of years when times were simpler and more men lived according to the good book vs. today's Laodicean Age. The Bible talks about how in the last times perilous times will come.

2 Timothy 4:2-5
2 "Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine.
3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
4 And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.
5 But watch thou in all things, endure afflictions, do the work of an evangelist, make full proof of thy ministry."

In these debates I have had in the past, Bruce Metzger was brought up as an authority that they looked up to.
But little did they know that he believed certain parts of the Bible were just fables.

Introductory Notes to the Pentateuch: “The Old Testament may be described as the literary expression of the religious life of ancient Israel. ... The Israelites were more history-conscious than any other people in the ancient world. Probably as early as the time of David and Solomon, out of a matrix of myth, legend, and history, there had appeared the earliest written form of the story of the saving acts of God from Creation to the conquest of the Promised Land, an account which later in modified form became a part of Scripture” (Bruce Metzger and Herbert May, New Oxford Annotated Bible).

Note on Jonah: “The book of Jonah is didactic [sic] narrative which has taken older material from the realm of popular legend and put it to a new, more consequential use” (Metzger and May, New Oxford Annotated Bible).

Note on Job: “The ancient folktale of a patient Job circulated orally among oriental sages in the second millennium B.C. and was probably written down in Hebrew at the time of David and Solomon or a century later (about 1000-800 B.C.)” (Metzger and May, New Oxford Annotated Bible).

He also believed in a local flood and not a global flood.

Note on the Flood: “Archaeological evidence suggests that traditions of a prehistoric flood covering the whole earth are heightened versions of local inundations, e.g. in the Tigris-Euphrates basin” (Metzger and May, New Oxford Annotated Bible).