[that's why He could say what He said to the disciples in Acts 1, btw]
... in Acts 1, where He had used a DIFFERENT Greek word for "know" ("it is not for YOU to 'know'..." a DIFFERENT Grk word 'know') from that of the one He'd used in Matt24:36!
[He's not making a blanket statement in either of these passages; and they are not conveying identical things either]