The Gospels and the Mystery
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The sign gifts, charismatics would agree thatbthey are still in effect. Cessationist say no, the sign gifts ceased with scripture as we now have the apostolic witness in scripture.
Either way, the argument you put forth doesn't hold. In fact none of the arguments you have put forth are tenable.
Again the warning is the same as i said above.
Apparently it is a dispensationalist who says hyper dispensationalism is satanic.
If anyone reading is interested to read more, here is the link to an easy to read article. It includes quite from a dispensationalist denouncing in the strongest terms hyper dispensationalism.
https://www.gotquestions.org/ultra-dispensationalism.html
Stay well clear of these guys.
Either way, the argument you put forth doesn't hold. In fact none of the arguments you have put forth are tenable.
Again the warning is the same as i said above.
Apparently it is a dispensationalist who says hyper dispensationalism is satanic.
If anyone reading is interested to read more, here is the link to an easy to read article. It includes quite from a dispensationalist denouncing in the strongest terms hyper dispensationalism.
https://www.gotquestions.org/ultra-dispensationalism.html
Stay well clear of these guys.
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Right. That's why Revelation 19:15b uses the "FUTURE TENSE" ("shall rule/shepherd/feed them/the nations [FUTURE tense]") from that point in the chronology (His "RETURN"--same idea of "RETURN" spelled out in both Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44 [and parallel] "when he will RETURN FROM the wedding..." THEN "the meal [G347; see Mt8:11], and Lk19:12,15,17,19 [and parallel] "RETURN," when He will deal out responsibilities having to do with "have thou authority over TEN CITIES..." and "over FIVE CITIES");
..and also why Rev19:19,21 / 16:14-16 / 20:5 (Armageddon time-slot) corresponds with the FIRST of TWO "PUNISH" words in Isaiah 24:21-22a[,23]; where, in this Isaiah text (among the chpts commonly known as "the little apocalypse") the SECOND "PUNISH" word is separated (from the FIRST "PUNISH" word of this text) BY "TIME" / A TIME-PERIOD
...(JUST AS Rev 19 and 20:11-15 also are shown to be! ...despite the "Amill-teachings" insistence that there is [supposedly] "NO CORROBORATION" [uh, NOT!])
..and also why Rev19:19,21 / 16:14-16 / 20:5 (Armageddon time-slot) corresponds with the FIRST of TWO "PUNISH" words in Isaiah 24:21-22a[,23]; where, in this Isaiah text (among the chpts commonly known as "the little apocalypse") the SECOND "PUNISH" word is separated (from the FIRST "PUNISH" word of this text) BY "TIME" / A TIME-PERIOD
...(JUST AS Rev 19 and 20:11-15 also are shown to be! ...despite the "Amill-teachings" insistence that there is [supposedly] "NO CORROBORATION" [uh, NOT!])
Huh? That's it? Just an emotional denial claim that what I stated is untenable? What does that mean? In other words, when you declare someone is wrong, and fail to lend substance to the allegation, your words are meaningless. I quote the words of Jesus, the One you claim to believe in. So which is it? Never mind what charismatics and cessationists believe. I don't give a rip snort what they believe. What matters is that you claim that Jesus speaks only truth, to which I agree, and then turn around and claim that what Jesus said is untenable. Why?
Your inconsistencies are impossible to grasp with it all slipping out from the hands of understanding on account of the lubrications of irrationality you apply through your silent refusal to back up what you say with anything of substance. Pointing at some comment on a secular website...that's a cop-out. Why won't you explain where I am wrong and you are right?
Please explain why you can't do those things Jesus said within the Kingdom Gospel dispensation. After all, Jesus declared that ALL will do what He said who believe and are baptized. Doesn't that apply to you, given that you believe it's all one, single Gospel, from John the Baptist to Paul?
If you're not going to explain yourself, then why comment at all apart from being nothing more than an antagonist? I would hope you're more than that, and will lend substance to your claim of error on my part. I've explained my questions and analysis from scripture and my own thinking rather than copying and pasting from some other source who is not here to defend their own claims.
MM
Your inconsistencies are impossible to grasp with it all slipping out from the hands of understanding on account of the lubrications of irrationality you apply through your silent refusal to back up what you say with anything of substance. Pointing at some comment on a secular website...that's a cop-out. Why won't you explain where I am wrong and you are right?
Please explain why you can't do those things Jesus said within the Kingdom Gospel dispensation. After all, Jesus declared that ALL will do what He said who believe and are baptized. Doesn't that apply to you, given that you believe it's all one, single Gospel, from John the Baptist to Paul?
If you're not going to explain yourself, then why comment at all apart from being nothing more than an antagonist? I would hope you're more than that, and will lend substance to your claim of error on my part. I've explained my questions and analysis from scripture and my own thinking rather than copying and pasting from some other source who is not here to defend their own claims.
MM
Certainly, that was in and under the mosaic covenant.
Why don't I put myself under the yoke of the Mosaic covenant, thats simple, i am under the gentle yoke of Chriat Jesus (new covenant) . I abide in Jesus as Jesus himself taught, paul masterfully explains the outworking of this more fully and theologically.
The whole Old testamnet speaks of and. Points to Jesus, even the temple is a shadow of Jesus, dor he is the true Isrealite.. The prophet, the High priest and the King reigning already. The shadow and types are all gone, the real thing has arrived in Jesus. I hope you don't miss that point.. In Jesus, he is the good news.
Anyhow, i pray John146, that you see the danger of hyper/ultra dispensationalism. The terrible teaching it applies to Jesus, which could only have a demonic origin.
Thanks for your concern, but trust me, I’m good. Paul’s words are the words of Jesus. Jesus taught him through an abundance of revelations. Why would there be a need of more revelation, an abundance of revelation, if all Paul needed was the words of Jesus as he spoke during his earthly ministry? The Lord could have just had Paul go learn from the disciples.