Understanding God’s election

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

studier

Well-known member
Apr 18, 2024
1,695
384
83
Jhn 6:45
It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

It is a fallacy to infer that those who are not mentioned as being in a category are therefore not in that category. "All bananas are fruit." All things that are bananas, are fruit. Can we logically infer that all things that are not bananas are not fruit? No.

"Every man that has heard and has learned of the Father comes to Me". Here we are told that all people who have heard and learned from the Father are coming to Jesus. Can we logically infer that all persons who have not heard and learned from the Father are not coming to Jesus? No. That would be the negative inference fallacy.

And as we see in John Chapter 6, there are many people who have not heard and learned from the father, who nevertheless were coming to Jesus .... for physical food, for healing, an argument, to view wonderworking, etc.
Thanks.

6:44?
 
Oct 19, 2024
2,601
628
113
TOP #263: Believers (the elect) may commit apostasy. [HB 3:6-4:11, 6:4-6, 10:19-39] Apostates will never repent, and thus it must be the unpardonable blasphemy against the Holy Spirit referred to by Jesus in MT 12:31-32.

The elect may choose to repudiate their saving faith and go to hell, just as they were free to have (non-meritorious) saving faith by the grace of God and be bound for heaven if they had endured to the end.

God initiates; souls may cooperate until they die--or not.
 
Nov 21, 2020
6,780
642
113
@rogerg


[Isa 54:1, 8, 13-14 KJV]
1 Sing, O barren, thou [that] didst not bear; break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou [that] didst not travail with child: for more [are] the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the LORD. ...
8 In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith the LORD thy Redeemer. ...
13 And all thy children [shall be] taught of the LORD; and great [shall be] the peace of thy children.
14 In righteousness shalt thou be established: thou shalt be far from oppression; for thou shalt not fear: and from terror; for it shall not come near thee.
Also the Isaiah passage gives us to know that God is speaking about all the children of God being taught Isa 54:13

13 And all thy children shall be taught of the Lord; and great shall be the peace of thy children.

The teaching is a Covenant Blessing Jer 31:34

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Heb 8:10-11


10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,609
485
83
I could be wrong, but I think that yes, we might actually be able to infer that. If we go back to the OT verses that are referenced in v45 by the "it is written in the prophets", we can actually go back and look at those verses. As I understand them, they pertain to ALL of those saved, not just a subset of them; that is, everyone saved falls into the "all" of the "taught by God" category; no one saved is outside of it; so, therefore, only and all of those saved are those taught of the God, hence, no negative inference fallacy applies nor is it logically possible because there is only one perspective to it. Consequently, it seems that those not taught of God are those not saved and not applicable to v44 &45. For the sake of brevity, I've included only several of the verses from Isa, but the intervening ones continue and/or expand upon the same line of reasoning. I guess it is possible that different OT verses were intended, and I missed them, but I couldn't find any others that seemed applicable to me.


[Isa 54:1, 8, 13-14 KJV]
1 Sing, O barren, thou [that] didst not bear; break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou [that] didst not travail with child: for more [are] the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the LORD. ...
8 In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith the LORD thy Redeemer. ...
13 And all thy children [shall be] taught of the LORD; and great [shall be] the peace of thy children.
14 In righteousness shalt thou be established: thou shalt be far from oppression; for thou shalt not fear: and from terror; for it shall not come near thee.
Srry, but being taught by someone does not mean they will necessarily LEARN from them.

John does not say, ""Every man that has heard and HAS BEEN TAUGHT of the Father comes to Me".
 

rogerg

Well-known member
Jul 13, 2021
4,096
690
113
Srry, but being taught by someone does not mean they will necessarily LEARN from them.

John does not say, ""Every man that has heard and HAS BEEN TAUGHT of the Father comes to Me".
Has someone actually been taught if they haven't learned, especially if the teaching is by God - hence the "great
the peace of thy children" in the same verse, which means, they learned.
 
Jul 3, 2015
62,259
31,235
113
"Every man that has heard and has learned of the Father comes to Me". Here we are told that all people who have heard and learned from the Father are coming to Jesus. Can we logically infer that all persons who have not heard and learned from the Father are not coming to Jesus? No. That would be the negative inference fallacy.
You contradict yourself. Again.

Certainly only those that God reveals Himself to can believe in Him.
 
Oct 29, 2023
3,609
485
83
Jhn 6:44
No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him:

This is equivalent to saying, "Only those whom the Father is drawing at this time can come to Me."
And it is also equivalent to saying, "All that are coming to Me at this time must have been drawn by My Father."
And, "The only way anyone can come to Me at this time, is if the Father is drawing him."

The mistake in interpretation some are making here is to assume that "to come to Jesus" is a metaphor for "to believe in Jesus". Therefore they infer that 1. Only those whom the Father draws can come to Me.
is th same as 2. Only those whom the Father draws can believe on me.
3.Therefore, "All who come to Me, must believe on Me."

But John 6:44 does not say anything to imply that "believing on Jesus" equates to "coming to Jesus." "Coming to Jesus" is not mentioned in the verse.

No man can be a Navy Seal unless He passes the rigorous Seal training course.
Someone assumes that "driving past the Navy seal training course site" means the same thing as "passing the Navy Seal training course."
So, they infer that the only way anyone can become a Navy seal is to drive past the Navy Seal training facility.

This is the false equivalency fallacy, falsely equating two terms that are not the same.

Jhn 6:44
No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

This is saying that all those that come to Me, I will raise at the last day.
We cannot infer that this means that only those that come to me, I will raise at the last day.

No one can come to this school unless they live in the same county, and I will teach them Math.
This means I will teach Math to all students who come to this school and live in this county.
Does this mean that I will teach Math only to students who come to this school and live in this county? No.
To assume it does, would be the negative inference fallacy.
 
Oct 29, 2023
3,609
485
83
Has someone actually been taught if they haven't learned, especially if the teaching is by God - hence the "great
the peace of thy children" in the same verse, which means, they learned.
I work in a school. All the teachers teach in class. All their students are taught in class. Not all their students learn in class.
 
Jul 3, 2015
62,259
31,235
113
John 6:44 does not say anything to imply that "believing on Jesus" equates to "coming to Jesus." "Coming to Jesus" is not mentioned in the verse.
No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him, and I will raise him up at the last day.

I suppose you are going to tell us now those who came to Jesus are raised to condemnation.

You are a piece of work, adding to and subtracting from Scripture as you do.


John 6:37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out.
 

rogerg

Well-known member
Jul 13, 2021
4,096
690
113
I work in a school. All the teachers teach in class. All their students are taught in class. Not all their students learn in class.
I understand that, but Isa 54:13 in particular, and Isa 54 in general, are saying that ALL of the saved - every last one - are taught by, AND learn by, God - no exceptions.
 
Nov 21, 2020
6,780
642
113
Srry, but being taught by someone does not mean they will necessarily LEARN from them.

John does not say, ""Every man that has heard and HAS BEEN TAUGHT of the Father comes to Me".
Yes it does, when it comes to the Father God doing the teaching, so its written Jn 6:44-45

44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

With God, teaching, hearing, and learning of Him are all one ! Job 36 22

Behold, God exalteth by his power: who teacheth like him?
 
Oct 29, 2023
3,609
485
83
Just out of curiosity, how do you define coming to Jesus? What do you think that actually means?
In John 6 "coming to Jesus" is coming to the place where Jesus is geographically. It's used the same way we all use it when we talk about someone coming to someone else. Why invent a metaphor when one is not needed to understand the text of John 6?
 

rogerg

Well-known member
Jul 13, 2021
4,096
690
113
Is. 54 does not mention the term "learn".
It is said by the "great shall be the peace of thy children". Their peace shall be great because they learned which gives them understanding, and therefore, their peace will be great. It is one continuous thought within the verse.

[Isa 54:13 KJV] 13 And all thy children [shall be] taught of the LORD; and great [shall be] the peace of thy children.
 

rogerg

Well-known member
Jul 13, 2021
4,096
690
113
In John 6 "coming to Jesus" is coming to the place where Jesus is geographically. It's used the same way we all use it when we talk about someone coming to someone else. Why invent a metaphor when one is not needed to understand the text of John 6?
So, to come to Jesus only applies to those who happened to be in physical proximity to Jesus at that time? And those not in
physical proximity cannot come to Him?