One of our residents in this looney bin presented a question that he surely thought should stump, as it would seem that the answer were obvious (or at least should seem to me to regular run of the mill thinker) but, of course, I'm a metanoyer [sic] and so I'm not surprised if people do find me to be a bit metannoying [sic].
Anyway, especially since the question had never occurred to me before, to even give any it any consideration as a possibility, I really couldn't dismiss it as having an so obvious answer, even if at first glance it might seem to. The question he'd asked was whether everyone's sins had been forgiven, or something of that effect, even the sins of those 'destined' (my paraphrase) for hell and, being too impatient for this trump card to be thrown back out, and because I think that I'm found to be holding the right Bauer, I'm taking this opportunity to lead the turn with it.
Yes, I say, everyone's sin has been dealt with, and fully paid, at the cross. The sins of the world, even, not some of the world, or most of the world but all sin that constitutes 'the' world, as opposed to this or that world. Why else are there two different resurrections, and two different deaths? One deals with the inheritance of Abraham's promise (the better) and the other deals with those I'll categorize as the anti-Abrahamic, or those that refuse to believe.
It is my deduction that all sins have been paid in full, so that only leaves unbelief to be judged. It will be argued that unbelief is a sin, however, but if there is anything left to one's free will at all without actually being accounted as sin, unbelief would qualify. Would Jesus have become a sinner if His prayer stopped short of, "Let not My will but Yours be done" Would you have considered Him wicked if He only prayed, "Take this cup from me"? Of course, Jesus had faith so He 'overcame' His will to save Himself (which I don't think anyone would argue He wouldn't have gone to hell, though I could be wrong about no one arguing that) but, even if unbelief inevitably leads to sin, exercising one's gift, this of free will, wouldn't necessarily be a sin in itself.
So, everyone will be resurrected, because the sins of the world have been atoned entirely atoned for.
Even so, that understanding would leave the question why anyone has to suffer the second death for unbelief if it is not a sin. And the answer is because freely rejecting the source of eternal life leads to eternal death, and that is the ultimate 'missing
the target.'
I decided not to tag the poser of this question in lieu of being able to write out the totality of my thoughts so far on it. It's hard to have an actual ongoing conversation when it has to be conducted with intermittent responses b/w life events that draws away from the coherent stream of exchange of thoughts. And by the time I'm able to form any sort of concrete thought on any particular subject (because I'll always be trying to learn) I'm distracted but always go back to the those (thoughts) that are the most intriguing to me, even if I do forgo actually trying to retrace the location of the exact conversation to pick it up....
Sooo, thanks to this particular teacher, even if there might be some things to iron out in my philosophy, I'll be preaching this conclusion going forward to anyone that will listen. That is, until
@Cameron143 manages to momentarily stump me once again.
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