Tongues are for the Jews. They require a sign. In Acts 10, it was a sign to the Jews that the Gentiles were getting in on salvation through Christ.
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Tongues are for the Jews. They require a sign. In Acts 10, it was a sign to the Jews that the Gentiles were getting in on salvation through Christ.
Yet another thread where man thinks he is the center of all things in scripture. Rightly divide the word of truth. There are three audiences in scripture: Jew, Gentile, and the church of God. Know which audience is being addressed in order to apply doctrine properly.
Knowing about Him is great, His Own have a hunger for the things of God, yet it is His goal for us that we know Him personally.
He taught there will be those who did miracles in His name yet except for that He knew them not.
blessings
GW = HS
Learning GW = knowing God
Miracles? Only if supernatural.
We operate via faith, not by seeing God.
LIC
Let me rephrase my statement. I believe, instead of interpreted correctly. Yet, once again, it is not scripture that says the Tongues was interpreted. The Greek word for "and" is the Greek word "Kai" which is a conjunction in this sense and is connecting the two clauses - they were speaking in tongues "and/kai" praising God.
I do not think that I understand scripture 100%. I simply love scripture and to learn. I have already learned a few things simply responding to people and doing a bit of research!
Thank you, friend. I will be completely honest, I don't believe it is required for salvation nor do I think it is a major issue if you are baptized in the Name of Jesus or in the Name of the Father, The Son, and the Holy Spirit
Yes, via faith in His Word/HS, which teaches that the requirement for a right/saving relationship with God is to accept Christ Jesus as Lord” (as in 2Cor. 4:5 & Col. 2:6), which implies believing:
- There is a/one all-loving and just Lord or God (Deut. 6:4, John 3:16, 2Thes. 1:6), who is both able (2Tim. 1:12) and willing (1Tim. 2:3-4, Ezek. 33:11) to provide all morally accountable human beings salvation or heaven—a wonderful life full of love, joy and peace forever.
- Human beings are selfish or sinful (Rom. 3:23, 2Tim. 3:2-4, Col. 3:5), miserable (Gal. 5:19-21), and hopeless (Eph. 2:12) or hell-bound at the judgment (Matt. 23:33 & 25:46) when they reject God’s salvation (John 3:18, Rom. 2:5-11).
- Jesus is God’s Messiah/Christ and incarnate Son, the way that God has chosen (John 3:16, Acts 16:30-31, Phil. 2:9-11) of providing salvation by means of his atoning death on the cross for the payment of the penalty for the sins of humanity (Rom. 3:22-25 & 5:9-11), followed by his resurrection to reign in heaven (1Cor. 15:14-28).
Thus, I repent and accept God’s justification in Jesus as Christ/Messiah the Lord or Supreme Commander (Luke 2:11, John 14:6, Acts 16:31), which means cooperating with His commandment to love one another (Matt. 22:37-40, John 13:35, Rom. 13:9)—forever (Matt. 10:22, Psa. 113:2).
I like just sharing HIS word and NEVER my opinion which is worthless. I'm just a repeater. I'm not the one who died for our sins. That is why there are so many different denominations.Thank you, friend. I will be completely honest, I don't believe it is required for salvation nor do I think it is a major issue if you are baptized in the Name of Jesus or in the Name of the Father, The Son, and the Holy Spirit
I know you were filled with HIS spirit but didn't mention baptism so I was testing the waters lol.
I understand if I can plant a seed.
No where is scripture does it reflect being baptized in THE NAME OF the father the son and the Holy Ghost.
Matthew 28:18-19
18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
As we see in Verse 18 ALL power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Now JESUS was with HIS disciples for app 3 years, do you think they know who HE was?
Who was JESUS talking to in Matthew 28? Yep HIS disciples who knew HIM.
Do you think they OBEYED his or disobeyed him by telling everyone they needed to be baptized in JESUS NAME?
What is "THE NAME OF" the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
They knew.
Colossians 3:17 And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him.
Acts 19 reflects people being baptized by John needed to be re baptized in JESUS name because no one in the NT was baptized in Johns name OR in JESUS titles (the father, the son, the Holy Ghost.)
The Holy Ghost JESUS said in John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
JESUS said we need to be born of water AND spirit to enter.
And the first message JESUS promised to be preached,
Acts 2:38-39
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.
38, YE SHALL RECEIVE THE GIFT of the HOLY GHOST.
39, Being filled with the Holy Ghost is a PROMISE to all of us.
Mark 16:17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
Thank you for your response. I know that pentecostals lean on the baptism in the name of Jesus and if they are Oneness, they also do not believe in the trinity. Matthew 28:19 is clear in its instruction from Jesus. However, we do see baptism in the name of Jesus in Acts. I believe both are correct!
As for John 3:5, I believe specifically that being born of water and spirit speaks upon the regeneration of the Spirit upon salvation. There are three baptisms that a believer goes through and the one in John 3:5, I believe speaks not of Acts 2:38 but 1 Cor. 12:13 which speaks of being baptized by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ! I believe that water baptism and baptism by Jesus in the Holy Spirit (or Ghost, which ever you prefer. Just know that in the original Greek the proper term for Holy Spirit is - pneuma hagion, Pneuma does not mean Ghost, but rather Spirit, wind, and Hagion is another word that means Holy or Holy one!). Very interesting indeed!
I don't speak of any denominations ONLY HIS WORD.
I know what they all believe if not I search it out to see if they are following HIS WORD or men's opinion. I studied what muslims believe so I can speak to them and spoke to many about JESUS.
First thing I notice you point out specific words being used in scripture to others to prove your point.
Which is what we are supposed to do.
If you showed my anyone being baptized in JESUS titles I WOULD FOLLOW IT, but there isn't any scripture backing it up, why is it even being spoken of??? If it's NOT in his word, it's someone's opinion.
It says what it says.
I'm sure you agree that we are born in sin.
And sin separates us from GOD.
So how do we get rid of it?
The only scripture I know where it is clear on how to get rid of our sins in being baptized in JESUS name. Acts 2:38, 22:16
What is so important is righting dividing the word, you will not see anyplace after the book of Acts on HOW TO BE REBORN.
As we can see in 1 Corinthians,
1 Paul called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother,
2 Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both their's and our's:
Paul is NOT speaking to the unsaved but a church he started so he is speaking to those with the foundation of the book of Acts that Paul also followed. As he was baptized in JESUS name and spoke in tongues.
He is giving his church deeper understanding about the Holy Ghost.
How many GODS do you think there are?
Thanks for rephrasing your statement.
I've explained the "kai" and the Greek grammar and the reasons I see "and" being coordinating - possibly even ascensive - and not subordinating. "Connecting" although correct is insufficient in detail and thus ambiguous, so we look for other grammatical markers which I provided some detail about.
Based upon these several factors, the language is clearly to me saying "they were hearing them speaking - magnifying God - in tongues. This provides for the following logic to go with the grammatical structure:
- Peter and believing Jews from Joppa were there
- Joppa was a multilingual seaport
- Gentiles, Cornelius and relatives and close friends were there
- Cornelius was a Centurian and likely multilingual but not necessarily fluent in all the language as the Jews from Joppa.
- We have no knowledge about his relatives or friends
- When the Holy Spirit fell upon the Gentiles Peter was evangelizing, the believing Jews were amazed
- The believing Jews who were hearing the Gentiles speaking in tongues understood that they were magnifying God:
- To understand their magnifying God:
- They had to understand the languages
- and/or the Spirit was also providing interpretation(s) whatever the languages
- To understand their magnifying God:
- If anything, this is comparative to Acts2
FWIW, I was taught under Cessationism. I lived in an area that was heavily charismatic and had several charismatic acquaintances - some who would run to the nearby airport to fly anywhere in the US there was supposedly a "move of the Spirit". I was informed of adventures where people were under "holy laughter" and even barking like dogs as a supposed move of the Spirit.
To get my own grasp on this I studied it myself after 3 years of instruction in Greek and years under instruction in systematic theology. My take has been for some time that I can't agree from the Text with hardline Cessationism nor do I think these "moves of the Spirit" are of God. IOW my eyes and ears are open to the Text clearly saying the gifts remain. Acts10:48 doesn't establish this nor do I agree that there was no interpretation going on there.
If you'd like to press your case, you're going to have to dig beyond grammatical ambiguities and also (see how I made and clarified "and" being other than coordinating?) get into some logic from Scripture. The Scripture doesn't have to say "there were interpreters there" for us to see interpretations being made especially after a precedence was established in Luke's account as he opened the issue in Acts.
I will start from the bottom and work my way up. I do believe there is one God coexistent in three different persons - this is very clear from John 13-17. There, you understand that Jesus explains that He is working with both His Father (God) and the Holy Spirit (God), and that we must work alongside Him (God) to produce fruit that will keep us. It goes a bit deeper, but this would probably be a book by the time I get done with all of it. I would also recommend reading the council of Nicaea in 325 ad, in which the early Church responded to a heresy Arianism which says that Jesus is a created being and not the same as God the Father (This is what modern day Jehovah witnesses and the united Pentecostal movement.) This was condemned by the early Church as the rest of the body refuted the claims.
You are correct when saying Paul is speaking to the saved, but he is correcting doctrine and their understanding of right teaching. The baptism in the Body of Christ was part of that knowledge, and this is also why I believe John 3:5 speaks more in the context of Salvation Romans 10 speaks of Salvation and what it is after the book of Acts.
Now for the fun stuff, let's break down Acts 2:38
I love the word Baptizo - which is baptize in English and represents a person is submerged or immersed in
In the context, if you think of it repentance and Baptism are hand in hand. The moment a person converts or reprents of their sin (Which in the first century, there was not a prayer of salvation. It literally means to change the way they think - they changed their actions and represented Christ moving forward.) Peter is saying Repent and be Baptized in Christ (The language is essential because to be baptized in Christ is a work performed by the Holy Spirit!) the word
The word Kai represents the word and - and literally connects the first part to the second part of the verse, be saved first repent and be baptized in Christ (The body. Both are salvation) and (the conjunction connecting the two) you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit (or i.e. the baptism of the Holy Spirit which is Christ Jesus baptizing those into the Holy Spirit - which is empowerment.
We can agree to disagree on the use of Kai in the verse, but I do not believe personally we can conclude that they were interpreted from that verse. You're attempting to read and imply your presupposition into the text, rather than allowing the text to speak for itself.
I will say this, Rodney Howard Browne has denounced anything of people barking like dogs and when the event did occur, they were kicked out. The kundalini spirit is a made up term by cessationist as a derogatory term for Charismatic Christians. I have experienced Holy Laughter, and I have felt depression leave me in some of his meetings. I do believe that the move of the Spirit did occur, and they are great. I do believe people take things overboard as well! I think people are desperate and one of the things that our Charismatic Brothers and Sisters are in the wrong on is living by experience and not by the word.
Lastly, I would go into the scriptures and exegete in Greek but as you know, that takes hours and I do have studies as well. I just simply do not have the time to go phrase by phrase. However, I would say that you are in dangerous waters attempting to read something in the text - if that were the case, then deliverance ministry is for today and a believer can be possessed by a demon (which I do not believe, but the theology is built solely on the principle you just stated. They read into the text and from that they produce a theology that is totally off base. It is the same principle).
By the way, I did take two semesters of Greek and Greek exegesis as well. Though, again, I just don't have the time to get into deep exegesis of the text. I hope you will understand that, I'm doing my final this week on the Parable of the Talents!
H
Howdy
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You do know that the word sacrifices is not in the original. It only says the daily.
And they were also wrong when they taught you that Daniel 9:27 is referring to the anti-Christ making a seven year covenant with Israel.
The anti-Christ is not mentioned any place in Daniel 9.
Daniel 9:27 is Jesus confirming The covenant promised by God in Jeremiah 31 when He was crucified in the middle of the 70th week.
The sacrifices in the temple were made unacceptable to God, even though the Jews continued to offer them.
Each time they did it was denying Jesus again and God allowed the army (people) of Vespasian (the prince to come) to destroy the temple, the city, and the nation and scatter them all over the world as punishment for their actions.
Show me one Scripture that states the anti-Christ will destroy the city and the temple.
The first half of the 70th week was the ministry of Jesus and the second half was set aside until the antichrist comes.
He comes out of Islam and his kingdom Islam and the daily that he stops is the daily prayers offered 5 times a day as he demands they worship him.
Mere mental assent to His life isn't faith, faith requires action, His commands were to heal, cleanse, cast out, etc.
This was a fair article on this.
best wishes
https://allankakinda.wordpress.com/2012/07/19/mental-assent-vs-faith-in-the-almighty-god/