You don't seem to understand the difference between a certainty and an assumption.
There is
no certainty that the thief on the cross was or was not baptized. Are you really using this as evidence that Peter was not commanding repentance and baptism for the remission of sins?
Regardless if the thief on the cross was or was not baptized, the promise made to him by Jesus was a personal one much like the paralyzed man in
Mark 2:1-12. We are in no position to shoehorn ourselves into the promises of others.
The promise of Acts 2 is a promise meant for all.
"The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call.”
John the Baptist and Jesus both proclaimed a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. You need to accept this reality.
I understand the difference between a pure assumption and a
highly unlikely. Now certain folks may try to argue that the thief on the cross may have been converted, was water baptized, yet the
fruit of that is
being crucified as a thief? - (highly unlikely)
In
Matthew 27:39-44, we see that those who passed by, along with the chief priests' scribes and elders
blasphemed, mocked and shook their heads at Jesus and
EVEN THE ROBBERS WHO WERE CRUCIFIED WITH HIM REVILED HIM WITH THE SAME THING. More fruit? I certainly don't see being
crucified as a thief, blaspheming, mocking and shaking your head at Jesus as being the
fruit of repentance/faith. Do you?
(highly unlikely) Yet, moments later, we see that one of the thieves had a "change of mind" (repentance) placed his faith in Jesus Christ for salvation and was saved. (
Luke 23:40-43) Of course, he died while still hanging on the cross before having the opportunity to be water baptized afterwards. That settles it for me.
A common argument used by water-salvationists in an attempt to "get around" the thief on the cross being saved through faith "apart from water baptism" is,
"the thief was not subject to baptism because he died under the Old Testament mandate before Jesus died and was resurrected." So let's see, after the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus, in
Acts 2:38, we read - "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.." and before the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus, while still under the Old Testament mandate, in
Mark 1:4 and
Luke 3:3, we read - John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a "baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."
Similar message and baptism is done on the basis of the remission of sins received upon repentance. Faith/belief in Jesus Christ (for salvation) "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 20:21; 26:18).
*Perfect Harmony*
As Greek scholar AT Robertson pointed out - My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So,
I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received.
Acts 2 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org
*Also, be sure to read post #1,790.
So, in
Mark 1:4 and
Luke 3:3, was this baptism of repentance FOR (in order to obtain) the remission of sins or was it or FOR (in regard to/on the basis of) the remission of sins received upon repentance? It would have to be the
latter in order to agree with the Old Testament mandate argument. *In
Matthew 3:11, we read: I baptize you with water FOR repentance.. Now did John baptize with water "in order to obtain" repentance or FOR (in regard to/on the basis of) repentance? Obviously, the latter. Baptized in order to obtain repentance would make no sense whatsoever! Repentance "precedes" water baptism. So, in
Mark 1:4,
Luke 3:3 and Acts 2:38,
baptism is on the basis of the remission of sins received upon repentance. So, the water baptism is not necessary for salvation under the Old Testament mandate but is necessary for salvation under the New Testament mandate argument doesn't hold water.
Under the Old Testament and the New Testament mandate, salvation is through belief/faith "apart from water baptism" (
Luke 7:50; 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 6:29;40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43-47; 11:17-18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:24-26; 4:5-6; 5:1; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; 3:26; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..).