J
Preaching To The Spirits In Prison
Before we ever make a doctrine from scripture we MUST compare scripture with scripture and never take a text out of context. If a scripture seems to be saying something but the rest of scripture teaches something completely different, then our interpretation of that text MUST be wrong. Scripture teaches the following (which contradicts what Kenneth Copeland of Word Faith teaches):
It is appointed for man to die ONCE and then the judgement (no second chances).
The story of the rich man and Lazarus and the outcome that there are NO second chances. Colossians 2:14-15 says “………he took it away, nailing it to the cross and having disarmed the powers and authorities , he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them, by the cross” Many other scriptures say the same thing, that everything was finished at the point Jesus died on the cross. Victory over the evil one was completed at that point. Therefore, no requirement for Jesus to go to hell. Philippian 2:6-11 mentions Jesus obedience to life and death but does not mention submission to satanic torture in hell.
Paul wanted to know nothing else but Christ Crucified. He says the message of thecross (not the grave) is the power of God for our salvation. Obviously the cross without resurrection would lose its power.
Collossians says All the fullness of the Godhead dwelt bodily in Jesus. Scripture teaches that the Godhead (trinity) cannot be divided and that God cannot look at or be absorbed by sin.
What would be the point of preaching to the Noahic spirits in hell if they do not have a second chance. If they are not in a provisional place before hell, why does it say “prison”. The Holy Spirit cannot abide in a vessel which is full of sin, so it cannot be the Holy Spirit which preached to the spirits in prison.
There are a lot of scriptures I would like to show you which show that it is a false teaching which does not measure up to the rest of scripture, but the above should be sufficient .
Therefore, we need to understand what Peter was actually saying. I thought through this, came to my own conclusions and then checked to see what others said about it (they all actually say what I concluded). The Old Testament teaches that the sacrifice of an animal’s life is sufficient to cleanse sin (temporarily). We read in scripture that Jesus is the lamb of God slain from the foundation of the earth.
The message of redemption has been preached by the same Spirit of God through the prophets since Genesis. Peter said that it was by the Spirit that Jesus preached to the spirits in prison. We read that Jesus appeared throughout the Old testament. Scripture teaches that Jesus (THE WORD) actually was involved in the creation process of the World. It is fair to say that Noah preached by the Spirit of God to those who are NOW damned (the spirits who are now in prison). Peter may simply be making the point that the cross is a declaration of Christ’s victory over the powers of evil or that Jesus preached through Noah.
There are also scriptures which say that fallen angels did not keep to their station. Maybe these angels possessed men at the time of Noah. These possessed men were the ones who had sexual relations with God’s people. It was because of this wickedness that the flood came, which Peter is referring to. Peter is leading onto the teaching about salvation and baptism, which is why he mentions Noah and the Spirit of God. We cannot be saved unless the Holy Spirit is within us, also!
So in conclusion, there are explanations which DO tie in with scripture. Let us choose one of the answers which match with scripture, not interpretations which are isolated from the rest of scripture.
On this basis, Ephesians 4: 8-10 is not talking about hell, but about Jesus leaving the Glory of Heaven to die on the earth and be buried in a tomb (lower earthly regions). It DOES NOT say hell, so we should not do mental somersaults to make it say something it DOES NOT say.
The scripture does say that God would not leave the body of Jesus in the grave. Some translations say hades, but apparently although the word sometimes is understood as the place awaiting judgement, but in the case of Acts 2:27, the original is definitely referring to the grave
.
So why was Jesus in the grave 3 days, 3 nights? (by the way some Passovers have what is called a HIGH Sabbath, which starts on Thursday evening and finishes Saturday evening – so Jesus was correctly in the grave 3 days and 3 nights). Two reasons. It was the Sabbath, so the body of Jesus was resting over the Sabbath period. Or could be because it needed to be clear that the body WAS dead. If he rose immediately, no-one would have believed that he truly died for our sins.
There is an interesting article from "GotQuestions" which puts a slightly different slant on the topic "preached to the spirits in prison".
When Jesus cried out "it is finished" it was a declaration (preached to?) to the fallen angels of Jude (which are now imprisoned) of the victory.
This does make sense if we consider Colossians 2:14-15
"having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.
Having disarmed principalities and powers, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them in it."
So Jesus triumphed over all forces of wickedness and all enemies to the soul which separate us from God or eternal life. This would have included the declaration against the fallen angels.
Having stated this, I don't know if they are correct or not. The point of mentioning it is because it is further evidence of how wrong Word Faith are in their interpretation of that verse "preached to the spirits in prison". There are far better SCRIPTURAL explanations.
To re-emphasise:
Jesus did NOT spend 3 days in Hell.
First consider that no-one has been to Hell yet. It is a place in the future which was provisionally reserved for Satan and his demons. Those who died (before Jesus died) were in a "place of dead souls" called hades (translated as hell). Hades was made up in two sections.
The righteous are in a place Jesus called "Abrahams Bosom" and "paradise".
The unrighteous are imprisoned. The original manuscripts use other words that have been translated as "hell". For example "sheol". Sheol actually can be translated as "grave". The NIV version of 1984 actually uses the word "grave".
However, all the major translations mention the word "soul" as being in the grave or hades rather than the word "body". This makes it a little more confusing.
However, if you consider that in Jewish thinking (re psalm 16, where Acts 2 is quoted from) the soul is not a separate entity to the body. In the garden of Eden, it was the "spirit" that died, not the "soul".
In Jesus, it is our "spirit" that has been made alive again, not our souls. To be born-again we experience our soul being saved (the whole of us, body and soul) and our dead spirit being made alive, with the Holy Spirit indwelling us.
On the cross the mere body of Jesus (not The Son of God) died. We know this because Jesus said "into your hands I commit my spirit" God CANNOT die, the Trinity (or Godhead) cannot die.
The Word became flesh. On the cross the "flesh" died which includes the soul which is part/parcel of the body. It is intrinsically linked, cannot be divided. However, THE SON OF GOD (the spirit of Jesus) cannot die, but went to the Father
So the body and soul of the MAN Jesus went to the grave - NOT Hell.
Anyway, where do the demons live at the moment? Are they in hell or as Ephesians 6 tell us "in the spiritual realm in the air"?
So Jesus was not tormented by demons in hell (because that would be to deny many other scripture passages).
Hallelujah, God indeed did not leave Jesus in the grave but raised Him up on the 3rd day.
Before we ever make a doctrine from scripture we MUST compare scripture with scripture and never take a text out of context. If a scripture seems to be saying something but the rest of scripture teaches something completely different, then our interpretation of that text MUST be wrong. Scripture teaches the following (which contradicts what Kenneth Copeland of Word Faith teaches):
It is appointed for man to die ONCE and then the judgement (no second chances).
The story of the rich man and Lazarus and the outcome that there are NO second chances. Colossians 2:14-15 says “………he took it away, nailing it to the cross and having disarmed the powers and authorities , he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them, by the cross” Many other scriptures say the same thing, that everything was finished at the point Jesus died on the cross. Victory over the evil one was completed at that point. Therefore, no requirement for Jesus to go to hell. Philippian 2:6-11 mentions Jesus obedience to life and death but does not mention submission to satanic torture in hell.
Paul wanted to know nothing else but Christ Crucified. He says the message of thecross (not the grave) is the power of God for our salvation. Obviously the cross without resurrection would lose its power.
Collossians says All the fullness of the Godhead dwelt bodily in Jesus. Scripture teaches that the Godhead (trinity) cannot be divided and that God cannot look at or be absorbed by sin.
What would be the point of preaching to the Noahic spirits in hell if they do not have a second chance. If they are not in a provisional place before hell, why does it say “prison”. The Holy Spirit cannot abide in a vessel which is full of sin, so it cannot be the Holy Spirit which preached to the spirits in prison.
There are a lot of scriptures I would like to show you which show that it is a false teaching which does not measure up to the rest of scripture, but the above should be sufficient .
Therefore, we need to understand what Peter was actually saying. I thought through this, came to my own conclusions and then checked to see what others said about it (they all actually say what I concluded). The Old Testament teaches that the sacrifice of an animal’s life is sufficient to cleanse sin (temporarily). We read in scripture that Jesus is the lamb of God slain from the foundation of the earth.
The message of redemption has been preached by the same Spirit of God through the prophets since Genesis. Peter said that it was by the Spirit that Jesus preached to the spirits in prison. We read that Jesus appeared throughout the Old testament. Scripture teaches that Jesus (THE WORD) actually was involved in the creation process of the World. It is fair to say that Noah preached by the Spirit of God to those who are NOW damned (the spirits who are now in prison). Peter may simply be making the point that the cross is a declaration of Christ’s victory over the powers of evil or that Jesus preached through Noah.
There are also scriptures which say that fallen angels did not keep to their station. Maybe these angels possessed men at the time of Noah. These possessed men were the ones who had sexual relations with God’s people. It was because of this wickedness that the flood came, which Peter is referring to. Peter is leading onto the teaching about salvation and baptism, which is why he mentions Noah and the Spirit of God. We cannot be saved unless the Holy Spirit is within us, also!
So in conclusion, there are explanations which DO tie in with scripture. Let us choose one of the answers which match with scripture, not interpretations which are isolated from the rest of scripture.
On this basis, Ephesians 4: 8-10 is not talking about hell, but about Jesus leaving the Glory of Heaven to die on the earth and be buried in a tomb (lower earthly regions). It DOES NOT say hell, so we should not do mental somersaults to make it say something it DOES NOT say.
The scripture does say that God would not leave the body of Jesus in the grave. Some translations say hades, but apparently although the word sometimes is understood as the place awaiting judgement, but in the case of Acts 2:27, the original is definitely referring to the grave
.
So why was Jesus in the grave 3 days, 3 nights? (by the way some Passovers have what is called a HIGH Sabbath, which starts on Thursday evening and finishes Saturday evening – so Jesus was correctly in the grave 3 days and 3 nights). Two reasons. It was the Sabbath, so the body of Jesus was resting over the Sabbath period. Or could be because it needed to be clear that the body WAS dead. If he rose immediately, no-one would have believed that he truly died for our sins.
There is an interesting article from "GotQuestions" which puts a slightly different slant on the topic "preached to the spirits in prison".
When Jesus cried out "it is finished" it was a declaration (preached to?) to the fallen angels of Jude (which are now imprisoned) of the victory.
This does make sense if we consider Colossians 2:14-15
"having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.
Having disarmed principalities and powers, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them in it."
So Jesus triumphed over all forces of wickedness and all enemies to the soul which separate us from God or eternal life. This would have included the declaration against the fallen angels.
Having stated this, I don't know if they are correct or not. The point of mentioning it is because it is further evidence of how wrong Word Faith are in their interpretation of that verse "preached to the spirits in prison". There are far better SCRIPTURAL explanations.
To re-emphasise:
Jesus did NOT spend 3 days in Hell.
First consider that no-one has been to Hell yet. It is a place in the future which was provisionally reserved for Satan and his demons. Those who died (before Jesus died) were in a "place of dead souls" called hades (translated as hell). Hades was made up in two sections.
The righteous are in a place Jesus called "Abrahams Bosom" and "paradise".
The unrighteous are imprisoned. The original manuscripts use other words that have been translated as "hell". For example "sheol". Sheol actually can be translated as "grave". The NIV version of 1984 actually uses the word "grave".
However, all the major translations mention the word "soul" as being in the grave or hades rather than the word "body". This makes it a little more confusing.
However, if you consider that in Jewish thinking (re psalm 16, where Acts 2 is quoted from) the soul is not a separate entity to the body. In the garden of Eden, it was the "spirit" that died, not the "soul".
In Jesus, it is our "spirit" that has been made alive again, not our souls. To be born-again we experience our soul being saved (the whole of us, body and soul) and our dead spirit being made alive, with the Holy Spirit indwelling us.
On the cross the mere body of Jesus (not The Son of God) died. We know this because Jesus said "into your hands I commit my spirit" God CANNOT die, the Trinity (or Godhead) cannot die.
The Word became flesh. On the cross the "flesh" died which includes the soul which is part/parcel of the body. It is intrinsically linked, cannot be divided. However, THE SON OF GOD (the spirit of Jesus) cannot die, but went to the Father
So the body and soul of the MAN Jesus went to the grave - NOT Hell.
Anyway, where do the demons live at the moment? Are they in hell or as Ephesians 6 tell us "in the spiritual realm in the air"?
So Jesus was not tormented by demons in hell (because that would be to deny many other scripture passages).
Hallelujah, God indeed did not leave Jesus in the grave but raised Him up on the 3rd day.