Free will verses permissive will

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If they are the same thing, why does John distinguish them by mentioning them separately?
he doesn't the will of man is the ancestry of the will of flesh

How can you remove the will of flesh from the will of man ?

You can't he puts the will of the flesh first
 
John didn’t write anything that supports your assertion. In other words, you are adding to the text.

Again.
see here you again. If your so sure of yourself

Why even ask why the sentences are split up.

Why is it you only see your ideas as valid ?
 
what did you mean by this ?
Where Scripture is clear, and Scripture is the basis of the argument, one need not restate it.

John clearly distinguishes the will of the flesh from the will of man. You apparently conflate them.
 
Where Scripture is clear, and Scripture is the basis of the argument, one need not restate it.

John clearly distinguishes the will of the flesh from the will of man. You apparently conflate them.
apparently, 🙂 well at least that's not an absolute then on this occasion, I mean oooo i guess I should be grateful for that one sir.

At least I have a little bit of your compassion now,

I'll try my best to stay on your good side, but I can't promise you anything.

You have a tendency to fly of the handle.

But you still haven't answered how can the man's will of the flesh be removed from man, but anyway thanks for your tiny winy bit of compassion sir.
 
See post # 129.
ok well I'll ask you the same a question again then maybe this could persuade you to answer

So John 1 states the word was with God and the word was God

So surly the will of the flesh is the will of man then ?
 
ok well I'll ask you the same a question again then maybe this could persuade you to answer

So John 1 states the word was with God and the word was God

So surly the will of the flesh is the will of man then ?
If you can make a direct logical connection between those two statements, there might be a reasonable answer.

I don’t think you can. It’s a non sequitur.
 
If you can make a direct logical connection between those two statements, there might be a reasonable answer.

I don’t think you can. It’s a non sequitur.
nouns dont just go in one direction sir, because it was coming from a good logical premise.

You know you just can't get through to free will by yourself sir you need to Have God discipline your will.

it's madness I'm not getting an answer to this.
 
nouns dont just go in one direction sir, because it was coming from a good logical premise.

You know you just can't get through to free will by yourself sir you need to Have God discipline your will.
It would be lovely if your statements were something other than incoherent.

it's madness I'm not getting an answer to this.
To what, exactly?
 
It would be lovely if your statements were something other than incoherent.


To what, exactly?
incoherent ? Why
What did you find incoherent ?

John 1 was based on freedom.

A noun is also an idea sir like the idea of the word freedom.

So the word became flesh to give us freedom, overcome the will of the flesh