There are only two types of righteousness that I know of. One is man's and the other is God's. If it is man's righteousness, than it has to be called self-righteousness. We know Job didn't possess God's righteousness because God asked Job if Job was condemning God so that Job might be righteous.
Romans 3:10-12
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:
11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.
12 They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
Paul appears to be quoting David from
Psalm 14:1-3:
1 The fool hath said in his heart,
There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works,
there is none that doeth good.
2 The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand,
and seek God.
3 They are all gone aside, they are
all together become filthy:
there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
The point seems to be that no one is righteous
in and of themselves apart from God
. But you believe that a person
can be made righteous through faith in God, no?
Paul tells us in
Romans 4:3
For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God,
and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
It appears Paul is referencing
Genesis 15:3:
And he [Abraham] believed in the LORD; and he [God]
counted it to him [Abraham]
for righteousness.
So does Job using the term "my righteousness" then automatically mean it is "self-righteousness" and pride? How so? Based on the text, it is quite clear that Job's faith in God was
already established prior to his ordeal. One way this can be concluded is based on the fact Job consistently seeks God, and prays to Him, all throughout his suffering.
Let's look at these other verses from Scripture:
Psalm 4:1 (David)
Hear me when I call, O God of
my righteousness: thou hast enlarged me when I was in distress; have mercy upon me, and hear my prayer.
Psalm 7:8 (David)
The Lord shall judge the people: judge me, O Lord, according to
my righteousness, and according to mine integrity that is in me.
Psalm 18:21-25 & 2 Samuel 22:21-25 (David)
21 The Lord rewarded me according to
my righteousness; according to the cleanness of my hands hath he recompensed me.
22 For I have kept the ways of the Lord, and have not wickedly departed from my God.
23 For all his judgments were before me, and I did not put away his statutes from me.
24 I was also upright before him, and I kept myself from mine iniquity.
25 Therefore hath the Lord recompensed me according to
my righteousness, according to the cleanness of my hands in his eyesight.
Question: Do you believe David's testimonies here are true or false?
Based on Psalm 4:1 it seems when David refers to
his righteousness, he understands that
God is the Lord of that righteousness.
So then, if David says "my righteousness" and it is understood to be in the light of God and His righteousness, then isn't it possible that when Job says "my righteousness" it can be understood in the same way? Disagree if you like, but according to Scripture, it looks like it
is possible.
When Job says "my righteousness" I believe it is in relation to his faith in God.
It's not a righteousness apart from God. As stated before, Job's suffering then is a *testing* of that faith. This also comports with what the apostle James wrote in his epistle about enduring trials as a testing of our faith. Then when he references Job, it is precisely for this same reason.