If it's not clear by now how someone here wants discussion of the Word stopped and wants to be interacting like a 5-year old, I'm not sure how it can be made clear enough. I do think God has used him as he said (cc:
@Genez) to show us the problem that exists in religious circles today - immaturity at best - possibly something worse - you decide.
Some posts ago I countered what the representation of Free-Grace Dispensationalists here are using to tell us that OSAS is biblical fact:
NAS John 5:24 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.
with more of John's writing:
NAS 1 John 3:14 We know that we have passed out of death into life, because we love the brethren. He who does not love abides in death.
What I see John doing is showing us that our Faith - meaning Christianity - is not the simple thing that some would make it out to be, were making it out to be at that time, and are making it out to be even now.
John is clarifying many things in what we call John's Gospel with what he says in 1John which more than one person I've read has called John's commentary on his own gospel.
So, a few things, and please feel free to challenge anything I write:
- It was proposed by an OSAS advocate in this thread that the phrase in John5:24 "has passed out of death into life" proves OSAS.
- The verb being translated "has passed" is perfect tense
- This verb is telling us that based upon an action in the past, the current state is one of life from death
- This verb does not tell us this state of life from death will last
- If something is telling us it will last, it's not this verb
- This verb is comparing to the previous verb Jesus used = has eternal life
- Some tell us this is what tells us this state of having life cannot change - because it's eternal
- Some tell us eternal life is more complex a topic and that it being eternal does not say that we are yet eternally in life
- This is part of what @Roger316 and I were beginning to discuss
- Then comes 1John3:14:
- John uses the same phrase that Jesus used (except he changes the subject from "he" to "we") - "we have passed out of death into life"
- Same perfect tense - same issues as in John5:24
- But John qualifies this:
- We know we have life because we love the brethren - we love our fellow believers
- Then John solidifies this - he changes from "we" to "he" - "he who does not love remains in death"
- So:
- Why does John not just repeat what Jesus said?
- Jesus said the man who hears and believes has eternal life
- John says the man who doesn't love remains in death
The OSAS advocates whether Reformed or Free-Grace or any other belief should be able to explain this and why it proves OSAS or Eternal Security.
The non-OSAS whether Arminian or any other belief should be able to explain this and why it doesn't prove OSAS or Eternal Security.
Those who believe Jesus is the Christ and who value His Word
IMO should want to be able to explain this.
At this time I don't think it proves OSAS. I'm willing to be shown why it does, even by some 5-year old who can set aside the antics long enough to present like an adult, let alone a spiritual adult.