What does Jesus mean about mansions?

[Godsgood]

Who said anything about ignoring 1 John 4? You assumed… again. You assume and invent problems to justify your dismissal.

You keep demonstrating that you’re an unpleasant person with an agenda.

You keep demonstrating that you’re an unpleasant person with an agenda.
The truth is:
If you are looking for a pleasant person as your basis for the truth. Then you'll never find the truth.

Jesus being the truth in John 14:6. According to God the Father, you can find Jesus unpleasant.
ISAIAH 53:2
2 For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.

 

[Godsgood]

The OP will extend the thread by himself whether anyone else reads it.

Our main purpose in this thread is to find the truth and not to look for allies.

As the Lord Jesus taught to Paul:
PHILLIPIANS 2:12
12 Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.

Seeking allies is a trait of Scribes & Pharisees.
Who are hypocrites in the eyes of God because they don't know who God the Father is and so they never preach the real gospel of God.
MATTHEW 23:15
15 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold more the child of hell than yourselves.

 

[Dino246]

Our main purpose in this thread is to find the truth and not to look for allies.

As the Lord Jesus taught to Paul:
PHILLIPIANS 2:12
12 Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.

Seeking allies is a trait of Scribes & Pharisees.
Who are hypocrites in the eyes of God because they don't know who God the Father is and so they never preach the real gospel of God.
MATTHEW 23:15
15 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold more the child of hell than yourselves.

Clearly, you are enamoured by your own ignorance

 

[Godsgood]

If all the 4 description of Jesus are come from God.
If we believe in all of them, what will happen next?

How do we know the real Jesus Christ recognized by the apostles if the 4 descriptions contradict each other?

These 4 descriptions to Jesus is the reason why debates in Christianity never end.
Everybody claims that what they chose from the 4 description is the truth.

The truth is:
It require humbleness to know the Jesus recognized by the Apostles.

By believing all the 4 descriptions to Jesus is a sign of humbleness.
Because we can't reconcile each of them.
That is the time that we will trust God and not to lean into our own understanding anymore (Proverbs 3:5).
By surrendering our own understanding, we will beg to God and ask his Mercy.
Then God will introduce the real Jesus recognized by the Apostles..
MATTHEW 16:15-17
15 He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?
16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.
17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

Let us remember that there are 2 Jesus.
1. The Real Jesus (recognized by the Apostles)
2. The False Jesus who is deceiving the whole wolrd.

REVELATION 13:11
11 And I beheld another beast coming up out of the earth; and he had two horns like a lamb, and he spake as a dragon.

REVELATION 12:9
9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.

If the recognition to Jesus is not a revelation from God the Father as in Matthew 16:17, then without knowing, the Jesus we serve and love is the false Christ.
And we have a failure result in the test.
1 JOHN 4:2-3
2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

 

[EddieM]

But if there is a contradiction even just 1 word in the holy bible then it comes from Satan.

I know what you believe, but it is not correct the way you are wording it. First of all, you are speaking about the "holy Bible" as if that were without errors. There are mistakes in our Bibles. What you really mean is the Autographa (the Original manuscripts). Those are without error or contradiction.

Here is a contradiction in your Bible:

If you read 1 Samuel 17 you will see that your Bible says David killed Goliath.
2 Samuel 21.19 contradictions this verse by saying Elhanan killed Goliath.

This is a real contradiction in the Bible and can only be "fixed" by adding words to the Old Testament so as to hide the error. There are many other contradictions in the Bible, but not one contradiction can be found in the Original Manuscripts. For example, it can not be determined in Rom 5.1 which word is the inspired word.

Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν / ἔχwμεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ,

Summary

Bibles have errors/contradictions. The Autographa do not have errors/contradictions.
We do have the original words of the the New Testament recorded in writing.
There are about 138,157 Greek words in the NT. Within the NT alone, there are over 475,000 variants. Every 3rd word is likely to be a variant. Whenever you talk about errors and contradiction in the Greek New Testament, be sure to distinguish between the Bible and the original manuscripts.

 

[Omegatime]

Rooms or places seem to be the correct term as one of Apostle John's disciples said the following:

Three places he has for his righteous, City of God, Paradise and Heaven above. Based all this on 30, 60 and 100 of those brought to know the Lord

Wanted to add this scripture

2 Corinthians 12:2
I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not know—God knows.

 

[Godsgood]

I know what you believe, but it is not correct the way you are wording it. First of all, you are speaking about the "holy Bible" as if that were without errors. There are mistakes in our Bibles. What you really mean is the Autographa (the Original manuscripts). Those are without error or contradiction.

Here is a contradiction in your Bible:

If you read 1 Samuel 17 you will see that your Bible says David killed Goliath.
2 Samuel 21.19 contradictions this verse by saying Elhanan killed Goliath.

This is a real contradiction in the Bible and can only be "fixed" by adding words to the Old Testament so as to hide the error. There are many other contradictions in the Bible, but not one contradiction can be found in the Original Manuscripts. For example, it can not be determined in Rom 5.1 which word is the inspired word.

Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν / ἔχwμεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ,

Summary

Bibles have errors/contradictions. The Autographa do not have errors/contradictions.
We do have the original words of the the New Testament recorded in writing.
There are about 138,157 Greek words in the NT. Within the NT alone, there are over 475,000 variants. Every 3rd word is likely to be a variant. Whenever you talk about errors and contradiction in the Greek New Testament, be sure to distinguish between the Bible and the original manuscripts.

I know what you believe, but it is not correct the way you are wording it. First of all, you are speaking about the "holy Bible" as if that were without errors. There are mistakes in our Bibles. What you really mean is the Autographa (the Original manuscripts). Those are without error or contradiction
When my recognition to Jesus was from my religious leaderI believe whatever he is preaching from the Holy bible. I no longer check if it is correct.

But when my recognition to Jesus is a revelation from God the Father (Matthew 16:15-17) I was amazed, I started to noticed that there are words of God are being pulled by the religious leaders into their sects belief.

And I conclude that, God never let his chosen to be deceipt by the people.

In your opinon, in this verse which is correct?

1 TIMOTHY 3:16 NIV
16 Beyond all question, the mystery from which true godliness springs is great:

He appeared in the flesh,
was vindicated by the Spirit
was seen by angels,
was preached among the nations,
was believed on in the world,
was taken up in glory.

1 TIMOTHY 3:16 KJV
16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

 

[Godsgood]

I know what you believe, but it is not correct the way you are wording it. First of all, you are speaking about the "holy Bible" as if that were without errors. There are mistakes in our Bibles. What you really mean is the Autographa (the Original manuscripts). Those are without error or contradiction.

Here is a contradiction in your Bible:

If you read 1 Samuel 17 you will see that your Bible says David killed Goliath.
2 Samuel 21.19 contradictions this verse by saying Elhanan killed Goliath.

This is a real contradiction in the Bible and can only be "fixed" by adding words to the Old Testament so as to hide the error. There are many other contradictions in the Bible, but not one contradiction can be found in the Original Manuscripts. For example, it can not be determined in Rom 5.1 which word is the inspired word.

Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν / ἔχwμεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ,

Summary

Bibles have errors/contradictions. The Autographa do not have errors/contradictions.
We do have the original words of the the New Testament recorded in writing.
There are about 138,157 Greek words in the NT. Within the NT alone, there are over 475,000 variants. Every 3rd word is likely to be a variant. Whenever you talk about errors and contradiction in the Greek New Testament, be sure to distinguish between the Bible and the original manuscripts.

If you read 1 Samuel 17 you will see that your Bible says David killed Goliath.
2 Samuel 21.19 contradictions this verse by saying Elhanan killed Goliath.
As I mentioned: God never let his chosen be deceipt by the people.

Aside from 1 TIMOTHY 3:16.
Another verse is what you said.
Which is the correct verse?

2 SAMUEL 21:19 SEV
19 And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, the Bethlehemite, struck down Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver's beam

2 SAMUEL 21:19 KJV
19 And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.

 

[Godsgood]

I know what you believe, but it is not correct the way you are wording it. First of all, you are speaking about the "holy Bible" as if that were without errors. There are mistakes in our Bibles. What you really mean is the Autographa (the Original manuscripts). Those are without error or contradiction
When my recognition to Jesus was from my religious leaderI believe whatever he is preaching from the Holy bible. I no longer check if it is correct.

But when my recognition to Jesus is a revelation from God the Father (Matthew 16:15-17) I was amazed, I started to noticed that there are words of God are being pulled by the religious leaders into their sects belief.

And I conclude that, God never let his chosen to be deceipt by the people.

In your opinon, in this verse which is correct?

1 TIMOTHY 3:16 NIV
16 Beyond all question, the mystery from which true godliness springs is great:

He appeared in the flesh,
was vindicated by the Spirit
was seen by angels,
was preached among the nations,
was believed on in the world,
was taken up in glory.

1 TIMOTHY 3:16 KJV
16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

When the recognition to Jesus is from the religious leader only, it is so easy to be decieved by the different version of the bible.

But when the recognition to Jesus is a revelation from God (Matthew 16:15-17). God will always make a way so his chosen will not be decieved by the different version of the bible.
God will lead his chosen to the correct version.
ISAIAH 43:19
19 Behold, I will do a new thing; now it shall spring forth; shall ye not know it? I will even make a way in the wilderness, and rivers in the desert

And God revealed which is the correct version.

 

[memberofthebride]

Jesus Christ is preparing "positions" of authority in God's Family which is the Government of God, for those that endure until the end.

10 And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth.

Those that endure/overcome will be Kings and Priests -- positions of authority -- ruling under the KING of Kings

21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

I do not find the doctrine of Grace requiring overcoming?? just belief.

 

[Godsgood]

JOHN 14:2
2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.

I would like to bring the question back to God once again:
Why did the Lord Jesus say that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?
This is a well-known passage that is widely preached to people.
We can hear their shouts of joy and excitement as they celebrate while this passage is being explained to them.

But what exactly is God revealing to us in John 14:2?

What did the Lord truly mean when He said, “In My Father’s house are many mansions”? Is the Lord simply speaking about literal mansions or physical dwelling places in heaven, as people commonly understand it? Or is there a deeper revelation contained in His words?

If the Lord speaks in ways that are sometimes beyond the natural understanding of man, as we have seen in other passages, then John 14:2 also deserves to be examined more deeply.

So I would like to return the question to God Himself: What is the revelation of God in John 14:2? What is the Lord truly revealing when He says that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?

 

[Psalm1]

I would like to bring the question back to God once again:
Why did the Lord Jesus say that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?
This is a well-known passage that is widely preached to people.
We can hear their shouts of joy and excitement as they celebrate while this passage is being explained to them.

But what exactly is God revealing to us in John 14:2?

What did the Lord truly mean when He said, “In My Father’s house are many mansions”? Is the Lord simply speaking about literal mansions or physical dwelling places in heaven, as people commonly understand it? Or is there a deeper revelation contained in His words?

If the Lord speaks in ways that are sometimes beyond the natural understanding of man, as we have seen in other passages, then John 14:2 also deserves to be examined more deeply.

So I would like to return the question to God Himself: What is the revelation of God in John 14:2? What is the Lord truly revealing when He says that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?

It goes back to the bride and the groom dynamic.
The groom Makes a covenant with his future wife, and they are betrothed that point.
Also, at that point, he would go back with his father, to his father's house, and build either a house or a room, for him and his bride, and that would be their honeymoon.

Pretrib rapture vividly pictured here.

 

[Roger316]

I would like to bring the question back to God once again:
Why did the Lord Jesus say that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?
This is a well-known passage that is widely preached to people.
We can hear their shouts of joy and excitement as they celebrate while this passage is being explained to them.

But what exactly is God revealing to us in John 14:2?

What did the Lord truly mean when He said, “In My Father’s house are many mansions”? Is the Lord simply speaking about literal mansions or physical dwelling places in heaven, as people commonly understand it? Or is there a deeper revelation contained in His words?

If the Lord speaks in ways that are sometimes beyond the natural understanding of man, as we have seen in other passages, then John 14:2 also deserves to be examined more deeply.

So I would like to return the question to God Himself: What is the revelation of God in John 14:2? What is the Lord truly revealing when He says that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?

Jesus isn't speaking about a location in this context. He talks about a house and mansions but these terms are metaphorical. Whatever Jesus means to say, it needs to answer his encouragement, "Let not your hearts be troubled." Why were their hearts troubled? Were they concerned about houses or mansions? No. They were very concerned about the news that Jesus was going to be crucified and die. The teacher and Lord they loved was about to be killed.

Jesus wants them to know that the strife and battle will not go on forever. In his house, there are many resting places. And when he returns, he will give his disciples a resting place. All strife and battles will be over. He will die, yes. But he will return and give them rest.

 

[OMC]

John 14:2: when Jesus says, “In My Father’s house are many mansions,” He is not revealing celestial architecture but the certainty, abundance, and nearness of covenant fellowship with God made possible through Him; the “Father’s house” is not heaven as a location but the Father’s presence, and the “many rooms” are not luxury estates but permanent places prepared for all who belong to Christ, meaning Jesus is revealing that His departure is not abandonment but preparation, His return is not symbolic but personal, and His promise is not about real estate but about relationship—that through His death, resurrection, and ascension, believers will dwell with the Father as securely as sons in a household, because the Son Himself makes room for them.

 

[Omegatime]

No need for rooms in a spiritual body so I choose places or dwelling places instead of mansions or rooms.

2 Corinthians 12:2
I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not know—God knows.

Then those who are deemed worthy of an abode in heaven shall go there, others shall enjoy the delights of paradise, and others shall possess the splendour of the city; for everywhere the Saviour shall be seen according as they who see Him shall be worthy. Irenaeus

 

[Researcher]

What did the Lord truly mean when He said, “In My Father’s house are many mansions”?

I believe the verse refers to the heavenly house that we will be clothed with:

2 Corinthians 5:2 - For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven:

What do you think?

 

[Psalm1]

If there cannot be rooms, mansions, or buildings in heaven, and if nothing is tangible, then I would have to say there's no temple, no altar, no temple furniture, no horses.
There's no throne, no actual robes given to the martyrs.
No actual crowns.
And there's no scroll in revelation, chapter 5.

Basically there is nothing in heaven if EVERYTHING is declared spiritual.

Cue sarcasm:
Maybe even God is just a representation of some spiritual something related to humans.
He just represents what we need as a religion.

 

[Dino246]

I would like to bring the question back to God once again:
Why did the Lord Jesus say that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?
This is a well-known passage that is widely preached to people.
We can hear their shouts of joy and excitement as they celebrate while this passage is being explained to them.

But what exactly is God revealing to us in John 14:2?

What did the Lord truly mean when He said, “In My Father’s house are many mansions”? Is the Lord simply speaking about literal mansions or physical dwelling places in heaven, as people commonly understand it? Or is there a deeper revelation contained in His words?

If the Lord speaks in ways that are sometimes beyond the natural understanding of man, as we have seen in other passages, then John 14:2 also deserves to be examined more deeply.

So I would like to return the question to God Himself: What is the revelation of God in John 14:2? What is the Lord truly revealing when He says that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?

It's not that difficult, and it's not that profound.

The eternal dwelling that God has prepared for His people has room for everyone who believes.

When you continually search for "deeper meaning", you open yourself to deception.

 

[Godsgood]

It goes back to the bride and the groom dynamic.
The groom Makes a covenant with his future wife, and they are betrothed that point.
Also, at that point, he would go back with his father, to his father's house, and build either a house or a room, for him and his bride, and that would be their honeymoon.

Pretrib rapture vividly pictured here.

What you said is very beautiful. It goes back to the relationship between the groom and the bride, who in the future will become husband and wife. God has revealed something about this, and perhaps it can be applied to our question about God in John 14:2.

 

[Godsgood]

I would like to bring the question back to God once again:
Why did the Lord Jesus say that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?
This is a well-known passage that is widely preached to people.
We can hear their shouts of joy and excitement as they celebrate while this passage is being explained to them.

But what exactly is God revealing to us in John 14:2?

What did the Lord truly mean when He said, “In My Father’s house are many mansions”? Is the Lord simply speaking about literal mansions or physical dwelling places in heaven, as people commonly understand it? Or is there a deeper revelation contained in His words?

If the Lord speaks in ways that are sometimes beyond the natural understanding of man, as we have seen in other passages, then John 14:2 also deserves to be examined more deeply.

So I would like to return the question to God Himself: What is the revelation of God in John 14:2? What is the Lord truly revealing when He says that in His Father’s house there are many mansions?

Why don’t we apply to John 14:2 what the Lord revealed through the three messages in His Word?

1. The letter or the literal meaning: This is the clear meaning that people can understand from the words of God.
2. The physical meaning: It is perceived through the senses. In other words, it can be seen, heard, felt, touched, and smelled.
3. The spiritual meaning: This is the spiritual message of God in His Word.