Calvinism is Gospel !

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Because, that was what Satan did (cursed the Lord) when the Lord took all away from Lucifer that he gloried in
and made him to hurt...
To hurt, in a desire to get Lucifer to repent and return to following God!

Up until then Satan had been using the excuse (probably for many years) before the angels, that they would have done the same thing if the Lord made them to hurt as the Lord had punished Satan. That Satan did no wrong!
Where does scripture say all this?

God tried to get Lucifer to repent?

Satan using an excuse before the angels?
 
Where does scripture say all this?

God tried to get Lucifer to repent?

Satan using an excuse before the angels?
"And this is my prayer: that your love may abound more
and more in knowledge and depth of insight." Philippians 1:9​

One purpose of God is why we find ourselves baptized into a spiritual battle here on earth.

Here are some links for you to consider.
It can help to lay the foundation for what is needed to understand.

https://www.katycommunitychurch.org/lesson-1-the-angelic-conflict/

https://www.wenstrom.org/downloads/written/doctrines/satanology/angelic_conflict.pdf

And... https://rbthieme.org/ordering/publications/the--angelic--conflict

......
 
The introduction may say that but Paul focusses on the plight of Israel.

You along with everyone else cannot identify the subject of the letter to the Romans.

Romans 2:23-24
You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God? For “the name of God is blasphemed among
the Gentiles because of you
,” just as it is written.

Why is Paul directly addressing the Jews this is first person?

Romans 2:25
For indeed circumcision is of value if you practice the Law; but if you are a transgressor of the Law...

Paul is not talking in the first person to the Gentiles.

Unless of course you promote circumcision.

Romans 3:1-2
Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision? Great in every respect.

Did you notice that Paul is talking about the Jews?

Circumcision is great in every respect!

So when does Paul start talking in the first person to the Gentiles?

No, but you confuse the addresses with the subject matter. For example, Paul addresses the Jews in order to teach both them and Gentiles about spiritual circumcision aka saving faith.
 
"And this is my prayer: that your love may abound more
and more in knowledge and depth of insight." Philippians 1:9​

One purpose of God is why we find ourselves baptized into a spiritual battle here on earth.

Here are some links for you to consider.
It can help to lay the foundation for what is needed to understand.

https://www.katycommunitychurch.org/lesson-1-the-angelic-conflict/

https://www.wenstrom.org/downloads/written/doctrines/satanology/angelic_conflict.pdf

And... https://rbthieme.org/ordering/publications/the--angelic--conflict

......
I was hoping you would provide me with scripture verses to support your claims that God tried to get Lucifer to repent and Satan used an excuse before the angels to justify his rebellion.
 
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some people will never admit they are wrong. he still believes the calvinism is the gospel.

It is really hard to understand from the normal christian perspective why they cannot see..... an astute pastor, who is also a family

member told me, this is not a belief system but a indoctrination system.

That is when I began to understand it, it is like a programming, if you have ever had conversation with that certain "door to door: group you will know what I mean by programmed.

No matter how scriptural and actually quite obvious the truth is, it will never penetrate their heart and mind.

Most people who leave this system have some kind of life event that has brought on that "aha" moment where they can no longer bear the cognitive dissonance.

The more they assert their doctrine the more entrenched they become (this is true all around) so I am thinking the debate may only make it worse for them.
 
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You are lying about God. He did intend to destroy Nineveh, but they repented, so God decided not to destroy Nineveh.

Nineveh repented upon hearing the warning. Bible does not say God put repentance into them.

You are denying what God’s original intention was, as declared in Jonah 3:4, 10.

But to affirm the truth of God’s Word here, one must accept the free will of humans and the fact that God responds to our choices.

Jonah 3

1 And the word of the Lord came unto Jonah the second time, saying,

2 Arise, go unto Nineveh, that great city, and preach unto it the preaching that I bid thee.

3 So Jonah arose, and went unto Nineveh, according to the word of the Lord. Now Nineveh was an exceeding great city of three days' journey.

4 And Jonah began to enter into the city a day's journey, and he cried, and said, Yet forty days, and Nineveh shall be overthrown.

5 So the people of Nineveh believed God, and proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest of them even to the least of them.

6 For word came unto the king of Nineveh, and he arose from his throne, and he laid his robe from him, and covered him with sackcloth, and sat in ashes.

7 And he caused it to be proclaimed and published through Nineveh by the decree of the king and his nobles, saying, Let neither man nor beast, herd nor flock, taste any thing: let them not feed, nor drink water:

8 But let man and beast be covered with sackcloth, and cry mightily unto God: yea, let them turn every one from his evil way, and from the violence that is in their hands.

9 Who can tell if God will turn and repent, and turn away from his fierce anger, that we perish not?

10 And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God repented of the evil, that he had said that he would do unto them; and he did it not.
If God wanted to destroy Nineveh He would have done so, just like He did with Sodom and Gomorrah. He didn't send a prophet to to Sodom and Gomorrah. He simply destroyed them.

I'm sorry you don't understand simple scripture. Isaiah 55:11 makes it clear that when God sends forth His word, it accomplishes what He sent it forth to do. Since God's word was sent forth to Nineveh, and since they did get saved, God's purpose must have been salvation.

Verse 9 you quoted is a confession of faith on behalf of the Ninevites. That faith came by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. That we be the word of God that God sent by Jonah.
 
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Do you know what God's purpose is?

Some of it was reflected in Satan's wager concerning Job.

And the Lord said to Satan, “Have you considered my servant Job, that there is
none like him on the earth, a blameless and upright man, who fears God and
turns away from evil?” Then Satan answered the Lord and said, “Does Job fear
God for no reason? Have you not put a hedge around him and his house and all
that he has, on every side? You have blessed the work of his hands, and his
possessions have increased in the land. But stretch out your hand and touch all
that he has, and he will curse you to your face.” Job 1:8-11​

What was going on there?
Why was Satan so focused on getting Job to curse the Lord to His face?

All that to simply curse the Lord?
Why so important?

Because, that was what Satan did (cursed the Lord) when the Lord took all away from Lucifer that he gloried in
and made him to hurt...
To hurt, in a desire to get Lucifer to repent and return to following God!

Up until then Satan had been using the excuse (probably for many years) before the angels, that they would have done the same thing if the Lord made them to hurt as the Lord had punished Satan. That Satan did no wrong!

Then?
Enter faithful servant Job!
Job's faithfulness refuted Satan's lie, and he could no longer lie with that excuse anymore!
For, Job suffered horrendously with undeserved pain that Job was recognizing came from God allowing for it.
And, yet!?
Job refused to curse The Lord to his face!

Then it happened!
Satan hid his face in shame and slithered away after Job did well in the eyes of God!

See! Do you really know what God's purpose is?

In Christ..... GeneZ
So Oh Wise One...what was God's purpose in Nineveh?
 
If God wanted to destroy Nineveh He would have done so, just like He did with Sodom and Gomorrah. He didn't send a prophet to to Sodom and Gomorrah. He simply destroyed them.

I'm sorry you don't understand simple scripture. Isaiah 55:11 makes it clear that when God sends forth His word, it accomplishes what He sent it forth to do. Since God's word was sent forth to Nineveh, and since they did get saved, God's purpose must have been salvation.

Verse 9 you quoted is a confession of faith on behalf of the Ninevites. That faith came by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. That we be the word of God that God sent by Jonah.
I’m sorry you don’t understand how God can threaten with a warning, expressing an intention to destroy, but if the people repent, God decides not to destroy them.

Nineveh exercised free will to stop being so evil. Thus, they were not in total depravity. They had at least a little bit of conscience in them, which the citizens of Sodom and Gomorrah may not have had.

God’s purpose is for all to be saved, but some resist His will and perish.



Jonah 3:10

And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God repented of the evil, that he had said that he would do unto them; and he did it not.




Ezekiel 33:11

Say unto them, As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?




1Timothy 2:3,4


3This is good and pleasing in the sight of God our Savior,

4who wants everyone to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
 
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They had at least a little bit of conscience in them
You have zero understanding of total depravity.

It affects the whole person and does not mean as evil as can be.

Or totally incapable of doing anything good.

But I would not be surprised if you deliberately twist it.

As you have been known to do with many other things.

Where is your conscience?
 
It is apparent that what people are objecting to is their own made-up definitions instead of what terms actually mean.

While often misunderstood, the doctrine of total depravity is an acknowledgement that the
Bible teaches that as a result of the fall of man (Genesis 3:6) every part of man—his mind, will,
emotions and flesh—have been corrupted by sin. In other words, sin affects all areas of our being
including who we are and what we do. Everything is tainted by sin and “…all our righteous acts are
like filthy rags” before a holy God (Isaiah 64:6). We sin because we are sinners by nature.

Total depravity summarizes what the Bible teaches about the spiritual condition of fallen man.
Because the name “total depravity” can cause people to have wrong ideas about what is meant,
some people prefer to use terms like “total inability,” “righteous incapability,” “radical corruption”
or even “moral inability.” Yet what is important is not the name assigned to the doctrine but how
accurately the doctrine summarizes what the Bible teaches about the spiritual condition of fallen
man. No matter which name you use to refer to “total depravity,” the fact remains that when properly
understood it is an accurate description of what the Bible does teach on this important subject.

The total depravity of man is seen throughout the Bible. Man’s heart is “deceitful and desperately wicked” (Jeremiah 17:9). The Bible also teaches us that man is born dead in transgression and sin (Psalm 51:5, Psalm 58:3, Ephesians 2:1-5). The Bible teaches that because unregenerate man is “dead in transgressions” (Ephesians 2:5), he is held captive by a love for sin (John 3:19; John 8:34) so that he will not seek God (Romans 3:10-11) because he loves the darkness (John 3:19) and does not understand the things of God (1 Corinthians 2:14). Therefore, men suppress the truth of God in unrighteousness (Romans 1:18) and continue to willfully live in sin. Because they are totally depraved, this sinful lifestyle seems right to men (Proverbs 14:12) so they reject the gospel of Christ as foolishness (1 Corinthians 1:18) and their mind is “hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is unable to do so” (Romans 8:7).

The Apostle Paul summarizes the total depravity of man in Romans 3:9-18. He begins this passage by saying that “both Jews and Greeks are all under sin.” Simply put, this means that man is under the control of sin or is controlled by his sin nature (his natural tendency to sin). Then in the rest of this passage Paul quotes extensively from the Old Testament in explaining how sinful man really is. For example, we see that:

1—no one is without sin,

2—no one seeks after God,

3—there is no one who is good,

4—their speech is corrupted by sin,

5—their actions are corrupted by sin, and

6—above all, they have no fear of God.

So, when one considers even these few verses, it becomes abundantly clear the Bible does indeed teach
that fallen man is “totally depraved,” because sin affects all of him including his mind, will and emotions
so that “there is none who does good, no not one” (Romans 3:12).
source
 
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Psalm14-1-3-Job15-16s.png

Psalm 14 verses 1-3; Job 15 verse 16 ~ The fool says in his heart, “There is no God.” They are corrupt; their acts are vile. There is no one who does good. The LORD looks down from heaven upon the sons of men to see if any understand, if any seek God. All have turned away, they have together become corrupt; there is no one who does good, not even one. Man is vile and corrupt.
 
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It is apparent that what people are objecting to is their own made-up definitions instead of what terms actually mean.

While often misunderstood, the doctrine of total depravity is an acknowledgement that the
Bible teaches that as a result of the fall of man (Genesis 3:6) every part of man—his mind, will,
emotions and flesh—have been corrupted by sin. In other words, sin affects all areas of our being
including who we are and what we do. Everything is tainted by sin and “…all our righteous acts are
like filthy rags” before a holy God (Isaiah 64:6). We sin because we are sinners by nature.

Total depravity summarizes what the Bible teaches about the spiritual condition of fallen man.
Because the name “total depravity” can cause people to have wrong ideas about what is meant,
some people prefer to use terms like “total inability,” “righteous incapability,” “radical corruption”
or even “moral inability.” Yet what is important is not the name assigned to the doctrine but how
accurately the doctrine summarizes what the Bible teaches about the spiritual condition of fallen
man. No matter which name you use to refer to “total depravity,” the fact remains that when properly
understood it is an accurate description of what the Bible does teach on this important subject.

The total depravity of man is seen throughout the Bible. Man’s heart is “deceitful and desperately wicked” (Jeremiah 17:9). The Bible also teaches us that man is born dead in transgression and sin (Psalm 51:5, Psalm 58:3, Ephesians 2:1-5). The Bible teaches that because unregenerate man is “dead in transgressions” (Ephesians 2:5), he is held captive by a love for sin (John 3:19; John 8:34) so that he will not seek God (Romans 3:10-11) because he loves the darkness (John 3:19) and does not understand the things of God (1 Corinthians 2:14). Therefore, men suppress the truth of God in unrighteousness (Romans 1:18) and continue to willfully live in sin. Because they are totally depraved, this sinful lifestyle seems right to men (Proverbs 14:12) so they reject the gospel of Christ as foolishness (1 Corinthians 1:18) and their mind is “hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is unable to do so” (Romans 8:7).

The Apostle Paul summarizes the total depravity of man in Romans 3:9-18. He begins this passage by saying that “both Jews and Greeks are all under sin.” Simply put, this means that man is under the control of sin or is controlled by his sin nature (his natural tendency to sin). Then in the rest of this passage Paul quotes extensively from the Old Testament in explaining how sinful man really is. For example, we see that:

1—no one is without sin,

2—no one seeks after God,

3—there is no one who is good,

4—their speech is corrupted by sin,

5—their actions are corrupted by sin, and

6—above all, they have no fear of God.

So, when one considers even these few verses, it becomes abundantly clear the Bible does indeed teach
that fallen man is “totally depraved,” because sin affects all of him including his mind, will and emotions
so that “there is none who does good, no not one” (Romans 3:12).
source

Your post makes clear the need to harmonize the Romans passage with Matt. 4:17, 7:7 and 23:37 for starters.
 
I’m sorry you don’t understand how God can threaten with a warning, expressing an intention to destroy, but if the people repent, God decides not to destroy them.

Nineveh exercised free will to stop being so evil. Thus, they were not in total depravity. They had at least a little bit of conscience in them, which the citizens of Sodom and Gomorrah may not have had.

God’s purpose is for all to be saved, but some resist His will and perish.



Jonah 3:10

And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God repented of the evil, that he had said that he would do unto them; and he did it not.




Ezekiel 33:11

Say unto them, As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?




1Timothy 2:3,4


3This is good and pleasing in the sight of God our Savior,

4who wants everyone to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
I got you to the water.
 
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Matthew13-13-15s.png

Matthew 13 v 13-15 Then the disciples came to Jesus and asked, “Why do You speak to the people in parables?” He replied, “The knowledge of the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them. Whoever has will be given more, and he will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what he has will be taken away from him. This is why I speak to them in parables: ‘Though seeing, they do not see; though hearing, they do not hear or understand.’ In them the prophecy of Isaiah is fulfilled: ‘You will be ever hearing but never understanding; you will be ever seeing but never perceiving. For this people’s heart has grown callous; they hardly hear with their ears and they have closed their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts, and turn, and I would heal them.’”
 
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I was hoping you would provide me with scripture verses to support your claims that God tried to get Lucifer to repent and Satan used an excuse before the angels to justify his rebellion.

How much do you know about the GAP theory of creation?
Do you understand it?

That the world we live in today is not the first world ever to grace the surface of this planet.
That a prehistoric creation came before this one and was destroyed after certain angels rebelled against God.
 
I haven't made any suggestions, so why dont you answer the question ?
You are at a lost understanding the answer I gave you. How do you know you aren't lost altogether? How do you know that you won't be one that He ultimately declares, "I never knew you," especially considering that you insist that you did nothing to be saved?
 
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