That's not what he's saying. You completely misunderstood or intentionally misrepresented his words.
Your question is unrelated to the issues you raised above.
How do preachers or teachers explain this?
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No, He did not "say so".
You would do well to learn to take the text at face value instead of constantly reinterpreting it to suit your wacky agenda.
You have written that phrase so often and contradicted it so often, that it has become a source of mirth.
You don't demonstrate that you know the one true God. Instead, you demonstrate that you are self-righteous and deceived.
Where did he deny it? Quote him, please, that all may see the veracity of your words.
The truth is that he didn't deny it. Instead, you accused him without any evidence... just like you have done many times to me.
If you do not see your name written in the Book of Life.
We who have come to know the one true God, through His revelation of the truth in His Word, see that our names are indeed written in the Book of Life.
That is why we testify this to people, based on what God has revealed to us.
Revelation 20:25 is the true basis for those who genuinely believe and have faith in the Lord Jesus.
I’ll say it again: What is written in the Holy Scriptures cannot be considered the truth until God’s revelation is given through His Word.
And if there is no revelation from God of the truth in His Word, then no one can testify to the truth of Ecclesiastes 1:9 and Matthew 24:35.
Using context to understand the Word of God was not taught by God to us who have come to know the one true God.
For context has served as a tradition that comes from man.
The Lord God Himself has taught us how to understand His words.
ISAIAH 28:10
10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
I testify to this because I have read less than one-fourth of the entire Holy Scriptures.
Yet through what I have read, the one true God has revealed Himself to me.
God has also enabled me to understand His words even though I have read only a small portion of them.
I do NOT deny what the Lord Jesus said. He expounded all things to His disciples. So when He was expounding, He was not talking in parables.
In the New Testament, the Lord Jesus spoke in parables. Therefore, He first had to expound them to His chosen ones so that they could understand. His expounding serves as His revelation of the truth in His words.
In our time, the Lord’s words in the Holy Scriptures are parables. Therefore, His revelation of the truth in His words is needed first for them to become truth. Thus, what is written in the Holy Scriptures cannot yet be considered the truth because it is still in the form of parables.
However, if you truly believe that the Holy Scriptures are already complete as written and that they are already the truth, then I will leave you to your belief.
I will not force you either.
And if there is a lost sheep who happens to read this, then this message is intended for that person by the Lord Jesus.
When Jesus told the man who had been demon-possessed to go and tell his friends what great things the Lord had done for him, were those words a parab;e?
Can you include the chapter and verse for this?
Are you claiming that you have access to the book of life, to actually see your name written there?
What ever does that mean? The Scriptures are God's word. How can the Scriptures not be considered truth until God's revelation is given through His word? His word is Scripture.
That does not make sense either. The Scriptures, the Bible, God's word will not pass away. Ecclesiastes 1:9 and Matthew 24:35 are in the Bible, God's word, the Scriptures.
I am not sure that you could force me, anyway, but thank you for saying that you won't.
Certainly:
NKJV Luk 8:38 Now the man from whom the demons had departed begged Him that he might be with Him. But Jesus sent him away, saying,
Luk 8:39 "Return to your own house, and tell what great things God has done for you." And he went his way and proclaimed throughout the whole city what great things Jesus had done for him.
Firstly, Revelation 20 does not have a verse 25.
Secondly, Scripture calls you a liar. You could not have seen your name written in the book of life, because the book has not been opened yet. See Revelation 20:12.
That's called "circular reasoning". It's self-defeating because the Holy Scripture ARE God's word.
Says you, and your opinion holds no weight.
I have explained to you many times that your understanding of Isaiah 28:10 is deeply flawed. Obviously God has not taught you, or more likely, you have chosen not to learn.
Given the wacky claims you make about what the Bible says, I doubt whether it is God who is "revealing" things to you.
Sometimes He did, and sometimes He did not.
That is your uneducated opinion and is not supported by the text itself.
You seem to be saying that parables are not truth.
What ever does that mean? The Scriptures are God's word. How can the Scriptures not be considered truth until God's revelation is given through His word? His word is Scripture.
Because anyone can quote the word of God.
Even the devil uses it.
But only the word of God revealed through His words will serve as the truth
MATTHEW 4:6
6 And saith unto him, If thou be the Son of God, cast thyself down: for it is written, He shall give his angels charge concerning thee: and in their hands they shall bear thee up, lest at any time thou dash thy foot against a stone.
PSALMS 91:11-12
11 For he shall give his angels charge over thee, to keep thee in all thy ways.
12 They shall bear thee up in their hands, lest thou dash thy foot against a stone.
What belongs to the devil is merely what has been written, so it is not yet the truth.
But what belongs to the Lord Jesus is the revelation of God through His words, and that alone is the truth.
MATTHEW 4:7
7 Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.
That does not make sense either. The Scriptures, the Bible, God's word will not pass away. Ecclesiastes 1:9 and Matthew 24:35 are in the Bible, God's word, the Scriptures.
Do you understand Ecclesiastes 1:9 and Matthew 24:35 to mean that God’s word should be preached at all times and should never be stopped, as if it were merely a story that happened in the past and should not be forgotten? Am I correct?
LUKE 8:38-39
38 Now the man out of whom the devils were departed besought him that he might be with him: but Jesus sent him away, saying,
39 Return to thine own house, and shew how great things God hath done unto thee. And he went his way, and published throughout the whole city how great things Jesus had done unto him.
The Lord Jesus said " Return to thine own house".
Since you said that this verse is neither a parable nor a dark saying, then its meaning should be clear to you.
If you were the man whom the Lord commanded here, what exactly would you do according to your clear understanding of the command?
Could you explain in detail?