looking for help reconciling the Sabbath with common observation?
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Then how come my Holy Spirit says your Holy Spirit is Satan and opposed to all that is good and Holy?
I don't need a list because Paul the apostle said that there were no commandments between Adam and Moses in Romans 5. But if you want to prove Paul wrong, then go ahead. Post your list.
You think Jesus was talking about the Weekly Sabbath observance? I don't think he meant that.
What does that mean in your view?
The Bible distinguishes between the Sabbath Day, a future time when Israel will live in peace, free of her enemies, and the Weekly Remembrance of that Day, when Israel is forbidden to do any work.
When Jesus declares himself to be the Lord of the Sabbath, and that The Sabbath was made for man, his is not talking about the Weekly Sabbath; he is talking about the time in Israel's history when she will live in peace.
Paul reminded the Hebrews that there remains a Sabbath Rest.
Because the "holy spirit" you follow is not actually the Holy Spirit and is a demon that that blinded you from Truth.
Repent and do better!
The law was not written down until Moses at Mt. Sinai.
But obviously the principles of the 10 commandments were known since the days of Cain at least:
1) "Thou shalt have no other gods before me" - Gen 35:1-4
2) "Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image..." - Gen 31:19, 34 & 35 and 35:2-4
3) "Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain" - Could not be broken before Moses learned God's name at the burning bush.
4) "Remember the Sabbath Day to keep it holy..." - Gen 2:1-3 is when it was first established. It was "made for man/mankind". The word for "man" in Hebrew is "Adam". It was also already known before the Israelites got to Mt. Sinai (Ex 16:4 & 22-30)
5) "Honor thy father and thy mother..." - Gen 9:22-25
6) "Thou shalt not kill/murder" - Gen 4:8-11, 23-24 and 9:5-6
7) "Thou shalt not commit adultery" - Gen chapt. 20; 38:24; 39:7-9
8) "Thou shalt not steal" - Gen 30:33; 31:19, 30&32; 44:8
9) "Thou shalt not bear false witness against thy neighbor" - Gen 39:7-20
10) "Thou shalt not covet..." - Had to be broken before the other commandments could be broken
These things were known sins (the "thou shalt not" ones anyway).
Rom 4:15 "...where no law is, there is no transgression."
Rom 3:20 "...by the law is the knowledge of sin"
I John 3:4 "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law."
Did Cain commit a sin when he killed his brother? Why? Where was a law given to him that stated "Thou shalt not kill"?
Did Cain know it was wrong? Why did God punish him if he committed no sins?
Did Joseph know it would be a sin against his master (and against God) if he slept with Potiphar's wife?
Where's the commandment for that?
What about Sodom and Gomorrah? Why was the antediluvian world destroyed?
Where no law is there can be no transgression.
The law was not written down yet but obviously it was known at the time.
Read the context.
Jesus is talking about the 7th day sabbath. Matt 12:1-2; Mark 2:23-24 and Luke 6:1-2
Paul was talking about the 7th day sabbath Heb 4:4 and 10.
And verse 9 the original Greek word used for "rest" is "sabbatismos", a specific reference the weekly sabbath day of rest.
Right. The Wall of separation kept Gentiles from gaining access to God via the temple. Paul argues that through the Cross of Jesus Christ, everyone now gains access to God through the Holy Spirit. This supports and emphasizes Jesus' point that God's children will no longer worship him from a temple; they will worship him in spirit and in truth.
Hebrews 8 makes clear that the fault was not in the covenant itself. The fault was with the people who entered into the covenant. Their problem was not a lack of information but a lack of spiritual ability. They repeatedly broke God's covenant because their hearts did not change. The prophets foretold that God would remedy this condition by performing an inner transformation. Instead of merely writing His law on stone tablets and commanding obedience from the outside, God would write His law on their hearts and enable obedience from within. Thus, the new covenant was necessary not because God's standards had failed, but because God's people needed spiritual renewal.
The Law functioned much like a diagnostic tool rather than a cure. It revealed God's holy standard, exposed sin, and made clear the spiritual condition of the covenant people. As Paul explains, the Law brought knowledge of sin, but it could not heal the sinful heart that it exposed. It could identify the problem, but it could not provide the inward transformation necessary to overcome it. The Law could command holiness, but it could not create holiness within the individual. Therefore, the failure of the old covenant was not that God's standard was defective, but that the covenant could expose humanity's spiritual brokenness without supplying the spiritual renewal needed to remedy it. The new covenant addresses this need by providing the inner transformation that the Law could reveal as necessary but could never itself produce.
That isn't true. The problem was not that Israelites lacked the physical ability to obey commandments. Scripture never presents the Law as impossible in that sense. Rather, the Law could command holiness without imparting the deeper spiritual knowledge of God that characterizes the new covenant. The Spirit's role is not simply to make people morally better but to enlighten them, reveal God's character, deepen their understanding of Christ, and bring them into a genuine knowledge of God. The promise of Hebrews 8 is therefore not merely improved behavior but transformed spiritual perception: "they shall all know Me."
The "ordinances" in Ephesians 2:15 are best understood as the covenant regulations that identified and separated Israel from the nations, such as circumcision, food laws, and purity regulations. These ordinances served an important purpose under the old covenant, but once Christ established the new covenant, they no longer functioned as barriers between Jew and Gentile. In that sense, they were abolished in Christ's flesh, allowing both groups to become one people of God.
The ordinances Paul has in view include those covenant regulations that identified Israel as a distinct people among the nations. Circumcision, food laws, purity regulations, feast days, and even the Sabbath served as visible signs of Israel's covenant status. These ordinances created a social and religious barrier between Jew and Gentile. Through the cross, Christ removed those covenantal distinctions, creating one new people of God from both groups.
Jeremiah is not talking about me. He is talking about the House of Israel.
Is he? Think about it. Jesus claimed to be Lord of one day of the week? I would think he would be lord of them all.
If one day of the week was made for man, what or who were the other days of the week made for?
Really, there remains a Weekly Sabbath for the people? How does that make sense. There is already a weekly Sabbath for the people and Joshua wouldn't need to give the people a weekly Sabbath because Moses already did that.
We need to think this all the way through.
Again, Joshua didn't give the people the Weekly Sabbath? Is that true?
The difference is that when our understandings conflict, we need a standard outside of both of us by which to test them.
For me, that standard is Scripture.
If my interpretation disagrees with Scripture, my interpretation must be corrected.
If your interpretation disagrees with Scripture, your interpretation must be corrected.
The authority is not my understanding of the text.
The authority is the text God inspired.
God created the sabbath on day 7 of creation week (Gen 2:1-3). Then wrote down the commandment to remember that at Mt. Sinai (Exo 20:8-11).
It doesn't phase me one way or the other if that doesn't make sense to you.