Nowhere in the Bible Does It Say Homosexuality Is a Sin

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kv100

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Sep 9, 2026
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Homosexuality, in contemporary usage, means romantic or sexual attraction to the same sex. It describes orientation, not sexual activity. Orientation and conduct are not interchangeable: a person does not have to engage in sex to possess an orientation.

Scripture addresses same-sex sexual conduct, but nowhere explicitly calls the mere possession of same-sex attraction sinful. To refute this, show a verse condemning orientation itself, not an action.

1. Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 — What is prohibited?

Leviticus 18:22 prohibits a male from lying with a male as with a woman; Leviticus 20:13 likewise addresses males who engage in that act. Whatever their continuing application, these prohibitions concern acts, not an orientation or someone who has never performed those acts.

A prohibition against an act does not establish that experiencing an unchosen attraction is that act. Indeed, Leviticus 18:22 describes what a man must not do; it does not say that a man who is attracted to another man has already done it. To equate the two is to replace the wording of the command with an inference.

Romans 1:26–27 — Actions, desires, and context

Paul describes exchanges of sexual relations and men inflamed with desire for one another. He calls the passions dishonorable and the relations contrary to nature. Paul is making a moral judgment; denying that would weaken the argument.

But Romans 1 concerns exchanges, desires and sexual relations within a wider indictment of idolatry. It neither defines modern same-sex orientation nor says that merely discovering such attraction is sinful. Nor has every gay person exchanged a former heterosexual orientation.

Romans 2:1 then cautions those who judge others. The surrounding argument matters. Some Christians read Romans 1 as condemning all same-sex relations; others argue its setting narrows the behaviour in view. That dispute cannot honestly be settled by pretending Paul gives a modern definition of orientation. He does not.

First Corinthians 6:9–11 — Wrongdoing, not a diagnosis of identity

Paul begins: “Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God?” His list concerns wrongdoing, including theft, adultery and swindling—not a catalogue of orientations.

The terms malakoi (“soft,” with disputed connotations) and arsenokoitai (commonly associated with males having sex with males) require care. Their scope is debated, though a behavioural meaning for arsenokoitai has strong historical support. Neither word straightforwardly means “someone who experiences same-sex attraction.” Translating them as “homosexuals” can blur conduct and orientation.

Verse 11, “And that is what some of you were,” concerns those categories and transformation in Christ; it does not explicitly say sexual orientation must change.

4. First Timothy 1:9–10 — Again, a list of offences

Arsenokoitai appears among lawbreakers, murderers, enslavers and liars. The text does not identify involuntary same-sex attraction as an offence.

5. Sodom, Gomorrah, and Jude 1:7

Genesis 19 depicts threatened sexual assault, not merely same-sex attraction. Ezekiel 16:49–50 identifies Sodom’s arrogance, abundance, neglect of the poor and abominations.

Jude 1:7 mentions sexual immorality and “strange flesh,” whose meaning is debated. Neither passage expressly condemns an orientation. Sexual violence is conduct, not orientation.

6. What about Genesis 1–2 and Jesus' teaching on marriage?

Genesis 1:27 describes male and female; Genesis 2:24 describes marriage between man and woman. Jesus cites this pattern while discussing divorce (Matthew 19:4–6). Describing marriage does not itself declare that someone sins by experiencing same-sex attraction.

What of Matthew 5:28?
Jesus condemns looking lustfully with adulterous intent. That proves inner attitudes can have moral significance; it does not prove that every experience of attraction is lustful intent. Otherwise, we would have to equate recognizing someone as attractive with choosing to commit adultery. James 1:14–15 distinguishes desire, enticement and sin being conceived. These passages demand moral discernment about desires, not the automatic condemnation of an orientation.

Conclusion — State the accusation accurately

“Scripture prohibits certain same-sex acts” and “Scripture explicitly condemns same-sex orientation itself” are different propositions.

A verse concerning conduct does not automatically condemn orientation. Ancient behavioural terms cannot simply be replaced with modern identity labels. And this claim is deliberately limited: distinguishing attraction from acts does not, by itself, settle every Christian disagreement about same-sex relationships. It establishes that arguments about conduct must not be misrepresented as explicit biblical condemnations of an entire class of people for what they feel.

Identify the passage explicitly condemning same-sex attraction itself, independently of conduct. Do not attribute to Scripture a proposition it does not explicitly state.

Accuracy is not a concession to culture. It is a responsibility to Scripture.
 
Homosexuality, in contemporary usage, means romantic or sexual attraction to the same sex. It describes orientation, not sexual activity. Orientation and conduct are not interchangeable: a person does not have to engage in sex to possess an orientation.

Scripture addresses same-sex sexual conduct, but nowhere explicitly calls the mere possession of same-sex attraction sinful. To refute this, show a verse condemning orientation itself, not an action.

1. Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 — What is prohibited?

Leviticus 18:22 prohibits a male from lying with a male as with a woman; Leviticus 20:13 likewise addresses males who engage in that act. Whatever their continuing application, these prohibitions concern acts, not an orientation or someone who has never performed those acts.

A prohibition against an act does not establish that experiencing an unchosen attraction is that act. Indeed, Leviticus 18:22 describes what a man must not do; it does not say that a man who is attracted to another man has already done it. To equate the two is to replace the wording of the command with an inference.

Romans 1:26–27 — Actions, desires, and context

Paul describes exchanges of sexual relations and men inflamed with desire for one another. He calls the passions dishonorable and the relations contrary to nature. Paul is making a moral judgment; denying that would weaken the argument.

But Romans 1 concerns exchanges, desires and sexual relations within a wider indictment of idolatry. It neither defines modern same-sex orientation nor says that merely discovering such attraction is sinful. Nor has every gay person exchanged a former heterosexual orientation.

Romans 2:1 then cautions those who judge others. The surrounding argument matters. Some Christians read Romans 1 as condemning all same-sex relations; others argue its setting narrows the behaviour in view. That dispute cannot honestly be settled by pretending Paul gives a modern definition of orientation. He does not.

First Corinthians 6:9–11 — Wrongdoing, not a diagnosis of identity

Paul begins: “Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God?” His list concerns wrongdoing, including theft, adultery and swindling—not a catalogue of orientations.

The terms malakoi (“soft,” with disputed connotations) and arsenokoitai (commonly associated with males having sex with males) require care. Their scope is debated, though a behavioural meaning for arsenokoitai has strong historical support. Neither word straightforwardly means “someone who experiences same-sex attraction.” Translating them as “homosexuals” can blur conduct and orientation.

Verse 11, “And that is what some of you were,” concerns those categories and transformation in Christ; it does not explicitly say sexual orientation must change.

4. First Timothy 1:9–10 — Again, a list of offences

Arsenokoitai appears among lawbreakers, murderers, enslavers and liars. The text does not identify involuntary same-sex attraction as an offence.

5. Sodom, Gomorrah, and Jude 1:7

Genesis 19 depicts threatened sexual assault, not merely same-sex attraction. Ezekiel 16:49–50 identifies Sodom’s arrogance, abundance, neglect of the poor and abominations.

Jude 1:7 mentions sexual immorality and “strange flesh,” whose meaning is debated. Neither passage expressly condemns an orientation. Sexual violence is conduct, not orientation.

6. What about Genesis 1–2 and Jesus' teaching on marriage?

Genesis 1:27 describes male and female; Genesis 2:24 describes marriage between man and woman. Jesus cites this pattern while discussing divorce (Matthew 19:4–6). Describing marriage does not itself declare that someone sins by experiencing same-sex attraction.

What of Matthew 5:28?
Jesus condemns looking lustfully with adulterous intent. That proves inner attitudes can have moral significance; it does not prove that every experience of attraction is lustful intent. Otherwise, we would have to equate recognizing someone as attractive with choosing to commit adultery. James 1:14–15 distinguishes desire, enticement and sin being conceived. These passages demand moral discernment about desires, not the automatic condemnation of an orientation.

Conclusion — State the accusation accurately

“Scripture prohibits certain same-sex acts” and “Scripture explicitly condemns same-sex orientation itself” are different propositions.

A verse concerning conduct does not automatically condemn orientation. Ancient behavioural terms cannot simply be replaced with modern identity labels. And this claim is deliberately limited: distinguishing attraction from acts does not, by itself, settle every Christian disagreement about same-sex relationships. It establishes that arguments about conduct must not be misrepresented as explicit biblical condemnations of an entire class of people for what they feel.

Identify the passage explicitly condemning same-sex attraction itself, independently of conduct. Do not attribute to Scripture a proposition it does not explicitly state.

Accuracy is not a concession to culture. It is a responsibility to Scripture.
In the days of Moses, I'm pretty sure if two of the same sex had sex, it would be an abomination to the Lord and they would have been stoned.
 
It does say that such behavior is an abomination to the Lord.

Personally, I believe that there are those that are born that way or, due to their environment, made that way. I try to cut them a little slack and not condemn them or pass judgement on them.

I also believe that God understands the human condition quite well and is full of mercy and compassion. We all could use some of that.
 
Homosexuality, in contemporary usage, means romantic or sexual attraction to the same sex. It describes orientation, not sexual activity. Orientation and conduct are not interchangeable: a person does not have to engage in sex to possess an orientation.

Scripture addresses same-sex sexual conduct, but nowhere explicitly calls the mere possession of same-sex attraction sinful. To refute this, show a verse condemning orientation itself, not an action.

1. Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 — What is prohibited?

Leviticus 18:22 prohibits a male from lying with a male as with a woman; Leviticus 20:13 likewise addresses males who engage in that act. Whatever their continuing application, these prohibitions concern acts, not an orientation or someone who has never performed those acts.

A prohibition against an act does not establish that experiencing an unchosen attraction is that act. Indeed, Leviticus 18:22 describes what a man must not do; it does not say that a man who is attracted to another man has already done it. To equate the two is to replace the wording of the command with an inference.

Romans 1:26–27 — Actions, desires, and context

Paul describes exchanges of sexual relations and men inflamed with desire for one another. He calls the passions dishonorable and the relations contrary to nature. Paul is making a moral judgment; denying that would weaken the argument.

But Romans 1 concerns exchanges, desires and sexual relations within a wider indictment of idolatry. It neither defines modern same-sex orientation nor says that merely discovering such attraction is sinful. Nor has every gay person exchanged a former heterosexual orientation.

Romans 2:1 then cautions those who judge others. The surrounding argument matters. Some Christians read Romans 1 as condemning all same-sex relations; others argue its setting narrows the behaviour in view. That dispute cannot honestly be settled by pretending Paul gives a modern definition of orientation. He does not.

First Corinthians 6:9–11 — Wrongdoing, not a diagnosis of identity

Paul begins: “Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God?” His list concerns wrongdoing, including theft, adultery and swindling—not a catalogue of orientations.

The terms malakoi (“soft,” with disputed connotations) and arsenokoitai (commonly associated with males having sex with males) require care. Their scope is debated, though a behavioural meaning for arsenokoitai has strong historical support. Neither word straightforwardly means “someone who experiences same-sex attraction.” Translating them as “homosexuals” can blur conduct and orientation.

Verse 11, “And that is what some of you were,” concerns those categories and transformation in Christ; it does not explicitly say sexual orientation must change.

4. First Timothy 1:9–10 — Again, a list of offences

Arsenokoitai appears among lawbreakers, murderers, enslavers and liars. The text does not identify involuntary same-sex attraction as an offence.

5. Sodom, Gomorrah, and Jude 1:7

Genesis 19 depicts threatened sexual assault, not merely same-sex attraction. Ezekiel 16:49–50 identifies Sodom’s arrogance, abundance, neglect of the poor and abominations.

Jude 1:7 mentions sexual immorality and “strange flesh,” whose meaning is debated. Neither passage expressly condemns an orientation. Sexual violence is conduct, not orientation.

6. What about Genesis 1–2 and Jesus' teaching on marriage?

Genesis 1:27 describes male and female; Genesis 2:24 describes marriage between man and woman. Jesus cites this pattern while discussing divorce (Matthew 19:4–6). Describing marriage does not itself declare that someone sins by experiencing same-sex attraction.

What of Matthew 5:28?
Jesus condemns looking lustfully with adulterous intent. That proves inner attitudes can have moral significance; it does not prove that every experience of attraction is lustful intent. Otherwise, we would have to equate recognizing someone as attractive with choosing to commit adultery. James 1:14–15 distinguishes desire, enticement and sin being conceived. These passages demand moral discernment about desires, not the automatic condemnation of an orientation.

Conclusion — State the accusation accurately

“Scripture prohibits certain same-sex acts” and “Scripture explicitly condemns same-sex orientation itself” are different propositions.

A verse concerning conduct does not automatically condemn orientation. Ancient behavioural terms cannot simply be replaced with modern identity labels. And this claim is deliberately limited: distinguishing attraction from acts does not, by itself, settle every Christian disagreement about same-sex relationships. It establishes that arguments about conduct must not be misrepresented as explicit biblical condemnations of an entire class of people for what they feel.

Identify the passage explicitly condemning same-sex attraction itself, independently of conduct. Do not attribute to Scripture a proposition it does not explicitly state.

Accuracy is not a concession to culture. It is a responsibility to Scripture.
Romans 1:25-27

"They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is forever worthy of praise! Amen. For this reason God gave them over to dishonorable passions. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. Likewise, the men abandoned natural relations with women and burned with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.…"

"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who submit to or perform homosexual acts..........."

Jesus said that even to look at a woman with lust is to commit adultery. The act does not define the sin. The same with hate. Why should homosexuality be any different?

Our fellowship does not consider any sin to be worse than any other. However, Lord Jesus came to set captives free. Same sex attraction is unnatural and a bondage. Jesus can set people free - if they are willing.​
 
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@kv100

First of all...
Homosexuality, in contemporary usage, means romantic or sexual attraction to the same sex. It describes orientation, not sexual activity.
This statement is incorrect - the term 'homosexuality' does in fact refer to either-or-both 'attraction' and 'activity' - two aspects of the same 'realm' of what we might call a 'confusion' of the natural order of things that God designed and intended.

Also, contemporary usage - in any and every case - does not by any means override the meaning of the definition and usage in the context of the time and manner in which it was written in the original manuscripts and translations.

Orientation and conduct are not interchangeable: a person does not have to engage in sex to possess an orientation.
The word 'orientation' is a misnomer of sorts - attempting to assign definition to where none can exist. In truth, there is no such thing as sexual 'orientation' - only 'natural'/'normal' and 'unnatural'/'abnormal' according to what God designed and intended.

While it may be considered that 'attraction' alone without 'activity' may escape the definition of sin in this context - 'acceptance' and/or 'support' of something God calls an abomination can most certainly constitute sin. It is rebellion against the natural order of things that God made.

You need to understand that "same sex attraction" is nothing more-or-less than an aberration - a deviation from the 'natural, normal, correct, and proper' way of things as defined and declared by God. It is 'unnatural'/'abnormal' by definition. What brings it about - how it came to occur - is another issue altogether.

If a person thinks/"feels" that they have "gay tendencies" - that in and of itself is not necessarily sin. However, to accept it as 'natural'/'normal' when God says that it is most certainly not - is rebellion against God. The best and proper question to answer is - 'How did it happen to become existent in the mind of that person?'. And, I will suggest, that 'in the mind' is the key thing here. Simply because it seems to exist - in the mind - does not make it natural, normal, correct, or proper - it is 'unnatural'/'abnormal' - God said so.

The good news is - God can correct it (I believe/know He can.) - turn 'unnatural'/'abnormal' attraction/desire into 'natural'/'normal' attraction/desire - for anyone who diligently seeks that correction from God.

Therefore, that person need not assume they cannot change and defend it because they think they are "stuck" with it - God changes lives!

That person needs to seek out God with the intent and willingness to correct that which is in error and follow after God and His ways.
 
"Orientation" is a product of corrupt language, which leads to sinful thoughts, thoughts lead to words, words lead to attempt, attempt leads to action, action leads to habit, habit leads to character. It's a slippery slope. You think you're in control, you can keep the boundary, but you can't, there's a momentum that carries on.
 
@kv100

First of all...

This statement is incorrect - the term 'homosexuality' does in fact refer to either-or-both 'attraction' and 'activity' - two aspects of the same 'realm' of what we might call a 'confusion' of the natural order of things that God designed and intended.

Also, contemporary usage - in any and every case - does not by any means override the meaning of the definition and usage in the context of the time and manner in which it was written in the original manuscripts and translations.


The word 'orientation' is a misnomer of sorts - attempting to assign definition to where none can exist. In truth, there is no such thing as sexual 'orientation' - only 'natural'/'normal' and 'unnatural'/'abnormal' according to what God designed and intended.

While it may be considered that 'attraction' alone without 'activity' may escape the definition of sin in this context - 'acceptance' and/or 'support' of something God calls an abomination can most certainly constitute sin. It is rebellion against the natural order of things that God made.

You need to understand that "same sex attraction" is nothing more-or-less than an aberration - a deviation from the 'natural, normal, correct, and proper' way of things as defined and declared by God. It is 'unnatural'/'abnormal' by definition. What brings it about - how it came to occur - is another issue altogether.

If a person thinks/"feels" that they have "gay tendencies" - that in and of itself is not necessarily sin. However, to accept it as 'natural'/'normal' when God says that it is most certainly not - is rebellion against God. The best and proper question to answer is - 'How did it happen to become existent in the mind of that person?'. And, I will suggest, that 'in the mind' is the key thing here. Simply because it seems to exist - in the mind - does not make it natural, normal, correct, or proper - it is 'unnatural'/'abnormal' - God said so.

The good news is - God can correct it (I believe/know He can.) - turn 'unnatural'/'abnormal' attraction/desire into 'natural'/'normal' attraction/desire - for anyone who diligently seeks that correction from God.

Therefore, that person need not assume they cannot change and defend it because they think they are "stuck" with it - God changes lives!

That person needs to seek out God with the intent and willingness to correct that which is in error and follow after God and His ways.
Your response is interesting because, despite your objections, you have actually acknowledged the central distinction established in my post. You write that experiencing same-sex attraction without sexual activity is “not necessarily sin.” Precisely. My argument concerns whether Scripture explicitly condemns the possession of same-sex attraction independently of conduct. Your response has not identified a passage doing so.

First, your objection concerning terminology confuses the scope of a word with the distinction I am making. The word homosexuality can be used broadly in discussions of attraction, identity, and behaviour. My opening statement expressly identified the aspect under examination: romantic or sexual attraction to the same sex. Saying that homosexuality describes orientation rather than sexual activity distinguishes what a person experiences from what a person does; it does not deny that broader discussions of homosexuality may include sexual conduct. A person can possess same-sex attraction without ever engaging in a same-sex sexual act. That distinction remains true regardless of the breadth of the umbrella term.

Second, you claim there is no such thing as sexual orientation. On what evidentiary basis? Sexual orientation is an established descriptive concept concerning patterns of romantic and sexual attraction. You may reject the terminology for theological reasons, but rejecting a term does not establish that the human phenomenon it describes does not exist. Furthermore, calling something “unnatural,” “abnormal,” or an “aberration” does not demonstrate that it is sinful. Those are classifications and moral judgments requiring independent justification. Repeating them with increasing emphasis does not constitute biblical evidence.

Third, your appeal to the original manuscripts does not answer my argument. I explicitly distinguished contemporary terminology from the ancient language of Scripture. That is precisely why my post examined Leviticus 18:22, Romans 1:26–27, 1 Corinthians 6:9–11, and 1 Timothy 1:9–10 individually. I did not suggest that modern vocabulary overrides ancient texts. I asked whether those texts actually establish the particular conclusion being asserted. Leviticus describes prohibited conduct. Romans 1 also addresses passions and desires, which must be examined carefully rather than ignored. But none of that licenses you to equate every experience of same-sex attraction with a conscious decision to rebel against God.

Fourth, your claim that accepting one's orientation constitutes rebellion introduces another proposition you have not demonstrated. Accepting that one experiences a particular attraction is an acknowledgment of an existing condition. It is not automatically an endorsement of every possible action arising from it. Acknowledgment, moral approval, and conduct are three distinct things. You cannot collapse them into one category merely by calling the attraction an abomination. Leviticus 18:22 identifies a prohibited act; it does not state that acknowledging an attraction is itself rebellion. If Scripture makes the additional declaration you attribute to it, identify the passage.

Fifth, you assert that God will change same-sex attraction into opposite-sex attraction for anyone who diligently seeks it. Where does Scripture promise this specific outcome universally? Biblical teaching about spiritual transformation does not automatically establish that every person's sexual orientation will change. Nor can a person's continuing attraction be treated as proof that they have not sought God diligently enough. That would be an accusation about their spiritual sincerity without evidence. If you are claiming a universal divine promise, substantiate it with a passage that actually makes that promise.

Finally, your question about how attraction originates is separate from whether its mere existence constitutes sin. Explaining the causes of a phenomenon and establishing its moral status are different inquiries.

Let us return to the precise issue rather than repeatedly expanding the accusation. Which biblical passage explicitly declares that a person sins merely by experiencing same-sex attraction, without engaging in prohibited conduct or deliberately cultivating sinful intent?

You have acknowledged that the attraction itself is not necessarily sinful. If you now wish to argue that acknowledging its existence, accepting one's orientation, or failing to change it constitutes rebellion against God, those are additional claims. You bear the burden of establishing each of them from Scripture.

Accuracy is indeed a responsibility to Scripture. That responsibility includes refusing to present our own inferences as though God had explicitly spoken them.
 
Romans 1:25-27

"They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is forever worthy of praise! Amen. For this reason God gave them over to dishonorable passions. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. Likewise, the men abandoned natural relations with women and burned with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.…"

"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who submit to or perform homosexual acts..........."

Jesus said that even to look at a woman with lust is to commit adultery. The act does not define the sin. The same with hate. Why should homosexuality be any different?

Our fellowship does not consider any sin to be worse than any other. However, Lord Jesus came to set captives free. Same sex attraction is unnatural and a bondage. Jesus can set people free - if they are willing.​
Your response raises relevant passages, but it does not establish the proposition my post challenges. The question is not whether Scripture condemns certain sexual acts or whether inward intentions can be sinful. The question is whether Scripture explicitly condemns the mere experience of same-sex attraction, independently of conduct or deliberately cultivated lust. Those are distinct claims, and they must not be treated as interchangeable.

First, Romans 1:25–27. I do not dispute that Paul describes same-sex relations negatively. Nor do I ignore his reference to dishonorable passions. But read what he actually describes: people exchanging sexual relations, men burning with desire for one another, and men committing sexual acts with men, within a broader account of idolatry. The passage addresses desires and conduct, but it does not define modern sexual orientation or explicitly declare that every person who experiences an unchosen same-sex attraction has thereby committed sin. You must demonstrate that conclusion rather than assume that Paul's condemnation of particular passions automatically encompasses every experience of attraction.

Second, 1 Corinthians 6:9–11.
The translation you quoted specifically says men who “submit to or perform homosexual acts.” Notice the word acts. The underlying Greek terms, malakoi and arsenokoitai, have interpretive complexities, but neither straightforwardly denotes the mere possession of same-sex attraction. You cannot cite wording referring to sexual conduct and then claim it explicitly condemns orientation itself. The conduct-versus-attraction distinction remains unanswered.

Third, Matthew 5:28.
Your observation that sin can involve inward intention is correct. I never argued that only physical actions can be sinful. But Jesus' statement concerns looking at someone lustfully, not simply recognizing that someone is attractive. Attraction and deliberately cultivated lust are not synonymous. If they were, experiencing heterosexual attraction would automatically constitute adultery as well. James 1:14–15 also distinguishes desire, enticement, and sin being conceived. The existence of an attraction does not, by itself, establish deliberate sexual intent.

Your comparison with hatred actually reinforces the need for precision. Jesus condemns morally culpable anger and contempt in Matthew 5:21–22. That does not establish that every involuntary emotional experience is identical to a deliberate moral violation. The moral content of an inward experience must be established; it cannot simply be assumed because the experience occurs internally.

Fourth, you describe same-sex attraction as unnatural and a bondage from which Jesus must deliver people.
Those are additional claims requiring evidence. Which biblical passage explicitly declares that every person experiencing same-sex attraction is in spiritual bondage merely because of that attraction? And where does Scripture promise that every such person who willingly seeks God will experience a change in sexual orientation? Biblical transformation is real, but you cannot automatically equate it with a guaranteed change in whom someone experiences attraction toward.

Finally, declaring that your fellowship considers no sin worse than another does not establish that the particular condition you are describing is sinful in the first place. Before comparing the seriousness of sins, you must establish that the specific thing under examination constitutes sin.

I am asking a precise biblical question, not denying that Scripture addresses sexuality or inward moral responsibility.

Can you identify a passage explicitly declaring that experiencing same-sex attraction, without sexual activity or deliberately cultivated lust, is itself a sin?

If you cannot, then you have not refuted the distinction presented in my post. You have cited passages concerning sexual conduct and morally significant desires, but you have not established that every experience of same-sex attraction is morally equivalent to either.