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Here is the greatest scriptural argument against literal time allotments. But does it stand under scrutiny?
2 Peter 3:8
> But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
Looks convincing when quoted like this doesn't it.
But what is the message?
Is God actually talking about literal or metaphoric understanding concerning time spans given?
Or is He speaking of something else all together?
Well it is easy to find out. We just need to read the message in context with the subject matter.
This is how the written Word begins this subject:
2 Peter ch 3
2 > That ye may be mindful of the words which were spoken before by the holy prophets, and of the commandment of us the Apostles of the Lord and Savior:
So we are being told to listen (be mindful) to Gods word through His holy prophets.
Not professor so and so's word, or doctor this and that's word, but to listen to gods Word only, ONLY listen through His established and proven prophets.
NOT future prophets/teachers to come, but His established bona fide prophets.
Nothing to do with literal/metaphoric debate here.
Strike one.
The subject continues unbroken:
3 > Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts,
Walking after their own lusts.
Lusts here means their own desires, or intentions.
So instead of listening to God, they are promoting their own agendas/interpretations/philosophies.
So God is revealing certain men and their hearts who are not His holy prophets, speaking out of their own interpretations/philosophies, be they Christian or some other.
No literal/metaphoric debate here.
Strike two.
The subject continues unbroken:
4 >And saying, Where is the promise of His coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of creation.
Ah, here is the crux.
This is the main point of discussion which is prompting Gods reply.
Men are saying that because so much time has passed, this is proof in itself that there is no God. How can it take so long for God to fulfill His promises? As though time is the underlying factor to undo the written Words credibility.
No literal metaphoric debate here.
Strike three.
The subject continues unbroken:
5 >For this they are willingly ignorant of, that by the Word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water,
6 > Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished;
So God is revealing, that even the old world, before and since men came to existence, served its time span before its judgment fell...elapsed time was no hindrance on the outcome.
No literal/metaphoric debate here.
Strike four.
The subject continues unbroken:
7 >But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same Word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.
Here God is comparing the outcome of the old world in regards to this one of ours. That the elapsed time in no way plays bearing against His promises, nor disproves His existence.
That the end will come regardless of the years passed before the outcome is heralded.
No literal/metaphoric debate here.
Strike five.
The subject continues unbroken:
Now the famous reply:
8 >But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
So now, in context, and concerning the unbroken flow of subject matter, concerning the reason for Gods reply to the argument in mens hearts which was this:
"And saying, Where is the promise of His coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of creation".
Now we can see the reason behind the wording of this Gods reply to that argument :
"But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day".
Again:
"And saying, Where is the promise of His coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of creation".
Reply:
"But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day".
So God is just telling us that time has no effect on Him. He does not age as men do, that even a billion man years would still be as one day to Him. He is saying don't let their argument put doubt into our hearts. Elapsed time only affects us. Not God. He will still be here in a trillion trillion years and beyond.
NOTHING to do with literal/metaphoric scriptural understanding at all. Nothing .
God is replying to an argument concerning elapsed time used in a discrediting way.
Strike six and out.
Now Ezekiel.
To save writing a huge post, lets be logical as to why God was metaphoric here.
Ezekiel was a man, he was mortal.
God was telling Ezekiel that he must lie on each side of his body for a set time to represent a time span.
Notice God declared that it was metaphoric?
He made sure that was clear, that He was being metaphoric.
So if He declares it here, what does that imply?
It implies, that when something is metaphoric, God will declare it. and all other times, He is obviously being literal, otherwise He would tell us.
This is consistent with His personality, He never changes.
So why was God metaphoric here?
Look at Ezekiel 4:4-6.
Each day for a year.
Add them up.
Lie on his left side for 390 days for Israel (390 years)
And on his right side 40 days for Judah (40 years)
That's 430 years!!
Do you think Ezekiel lived that long?
Of course not.
Simply a logical reason as to why God had to be metaphoric.
And this is all they got in their arsenal.
Two easily explained scriptures.
But will they listen?
That's up to God.