It's just my interpretation of the Bible, but I don't say I can't be wrong. The laws of the Old Testament make perfect sense in a utilistic manner. No sex outside of marriage / men with men to avoid STD's, one day per week no work to have mental and physical rest, circumcision to avoid some health risks, physical punishments because nomads didn't have prisons, forbid eating pork meat because it's unhealthy, hygiene laws to prevent diseases to spread on the whole population etc.
2000 years ago the chosen people weren't nomads anymore, so physical punishment weren't needed. The hygiene was good enough to get rid of a whole bunch of laws and circumstition. This 'evolution' (ooh, risky choice of words) of laws gives me the idea that laws are made for people, and not the other way around.
THANK YOU
now we're getting somewhere
We know that, as christians, we are not under the law though, but under grace (will post scripture upon request, but basically found in the books of Romans and Hebrews; I'm assuming this is common knowledge to christians).
Since:
1. Jesus Christ is the
same yesterday and today and forever. Hebrews 13:8; and
2. Since the NT also condemns this particular sin, even Jesus, Himself (which refutes God being tolerant of it, unless there are "christians" who don't accept the diety of Christ) (Matthew 19; Romans 1; 1 Cor 6; Gal 5:19; Eph 5; Col 3; 1 Tim 1; Titus1; Jude 1 and Rev 21) and the NT Church is to continue until the day of His appearing (again, christian common knowledge, but will post scripture upon request);
How can we say that this is no longer in full force and effect simply because society declares it to be so?
If we go by what society believes to be correct, it would shed an entirely new light upon the crucifixion of our Lord, would it not? If the majority of society comes to believe there is no God, will this make it so?
