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Jun 2, 2009
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#41
The word also tells us, of course don't try to find this in the NIV because they took part of the verse out . whosoever is anger at his brother without cause, yeah so you mess with the word of God, belittle the Word of God. turn the Word of God, into a book full of lies you just gave me cause to be angry as well as any other Christian should be also.


Matthew 5:22 (King James Version)


22But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.


Matthew 5:22 (New International Version)

22But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother[a]will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,[b]' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.



Footnotes:
  1. Matthew 5:22 Some manuscripts brother without cause
  2. Matthew 5:22 An Aramaic term of contempt
Jesus looked upon some people with angry so according to the Niv Jesus wasn't as perfect as people thought he was, according to the Niv , that is

Mark 3:5 (New International Version)


5He looked around at them in anger and, deeply distressed at their stubborn hearts, said to the man, "Stretch out your hand." He stretched it out, and his hand was completely restored.


and sir i guess with the same verse you just judged me with as a sinnner you also judged Jesus with for as much as ye have done it unto the least of these ye have done it unto me also, thank you I have something else to be thankful for I am Praising God That he is my judge and not you.

In His Grace

CURIOUS: You responded to my reply to Lynn, but you didn't respond to my question to YOU about 1Timothy 3:16. I wonder why that is? In HIS Grace.
 
Jun 2, 2009
38
1
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#42
The word also tells us, of course don't try to find this in the NIV because they took part of the verse out . whosoever is anger at his brother without cause, yeah so you mess with the word of God, belittle the Word of God. turn the Word of God, into a book full of lies you just gave me cause to be angry as well as any other Christian should be also.


Matthew 5:22 (King James Version)


22But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.


Matthew 5:22 (New International Version)

22But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother[a]will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,[b]' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.



Footnotes:
  1. Matthew 5:22 Some manuscripts brother without cause
  2. Matthew 5:22 An Aramaic term of contempt
Jesus looked upon some people with angry so according to the Niv Jesus wasn't as perfect as people thought he was, according to the Niv , that is

Mark 3:5 (New International Version)


5He looked around at them in anger and, deeply distressed at their stubborn hearts, said to the man, "Stretch out your hand." He stretched it out, and his hand was completely restored.


and sir i guess with the same verse you just judged me with as a sinnner you also judged Jesus with for as much as ye have done it unto the least of these ye have done it unto me also, thank you I have something else to be thankful for I am Praising God That he is my judge and not you.

In His Grace
It seems you may be confused. I never belittled the Word of God, attacked the Word of God, or any other such thing. Anyone who has read any of my comments knows better. I have spent an entire lifetime DEFENDING THE WORD OF GOD! Nothing like "bearing false witness" - PASTOR? Also I judged no one. I made a simple observation to Lynn about your response to her. Just my observation - you sure do seem angry to me. Even your response here more than supports that conclusion for me. Keith - or whoever you are - it seems to me that you have nothing to do but look for reasons to lash out at people. And, by the way, even when you are angry WITH A CAUSE, the Bible commands us to “BE YE ANGRY AND SIN NOT.” Is that not true? And one final thing - my observation over many years of observing this King James Bible debate - the “KJV only” folks’ main strategy is to demean anyone who disagrees with them. You don’t have to demean people to state your case - unless of course you don’t really have a case - then I guess that is all you CAN DO. I’m also curious - have you ever heard of Dr. Peter S. Ruckman? And by the way, you never answered my question about 2Timothy 3:16.
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
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#43
QUESTION: When the Holy Spirit inspired Paul to write 2Timothy 3:16, and Paul penned the words in the GREEK language "All scripture is given by inspiration of God..." was the Holy Spirit referring to the words Paul was dictating to be recorded at that time - in Greek - or was he talking about the original Elizabethan English King James Bible Translation produced in 1611, or the modern-day updated versions of what is commonly known as the King James Version (KJV)? Also, in that statement of “All scripture is given by inspiration of God…” was Paul also referring to the Old Testament Hebrew Texts, and if so, which ones? In His Grace!
I have already answered this question many times but I do it one more time for you, since I like you so much, if we believe that God could inspire, men to record scriptures such as Moses, Paul or John, and we believe, that nothing is impossible with God, then why is it so hard for everyone to believe That God could even inspired a bunch of translators, when they translated His Word into english?????????? if you consider the Old testament part of scriptures then you have answered your own question about ALL SCRIPTURES. If we believe that God could inspire the translators then why can't we believe that God could inspire the ones that authorized the Holy Bible Also. which one would be the one that our forefathers authorized for us to use. if they authorized the KJV then I would say the manuscript that they used for this authorized english translation. so if the JKB was the authorized translation for almost 400 years now, when You say that it has errors or it is to hard to understand, or it is out dated, then you are belittling the Word of God. that is the problem I have with the push to turn to the new modern perversions, to get people to lay down the Word of God for almost 400 years, now we have to tear it down.

take religion some say that all religions leads to God but this can't Be. for one religion, called christianity, leader states that He is THE way, no man cometh unto God, but through Him, Jesus. so all religions can't be true either most religions are true and christianity is false or either all religions have some truth. but Christianity is THE Truth. which I would hope that most in this forum would agree with this,

so now translations some say that all translations are true, but unless all translations agree then all translations can't be true, either all translations have some truth, But God is not the Author of Confusion And God can not Lie, so unless all translations agree, then all translations can't be inspired by God. this is why we need to stay with the one that was for almost 400 years now Ty,

also in His Grace
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
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#44
It looks like you are dealing with an ANGRY MAN. Wisdom from Scripture tells us "An angry man stirreth up strife, and a furious man aboundeth in transgression. A man's pride shall bring him low, but honor shall uphold the humble in spirit." Proverbs 29:22-23 (KJV) In His Grace!

PASTOR? Also I judged no one. I made a simple observation to Lynn about your response to her. Just my observation - you sure do seem angry to me.

I am sorry, sir but you can think of me what you want, it is not about me or you, but when you tell someone that i am an AGNRY MAN and then post scriptures as you did Pr 29:22An angry man stirreth up strife, and a furious man aboundeth in transgression.Pr 29:23A man's pride shall bring him low: but honour shall uphold the humble in spirit.


that is judging, you can call it what you want, With Love through Christ.
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#45
If we believe that God could inspire the translators then why can't we believe that God could inspire the ones that authorized the Holy Bible Also. which one would be the one that our forefathers authorized for us to use. if they authorized the KJV then I would say the manuscript that they used for this authorized english translation. so if the JKB was the authorized translation for almost 400 years now, when You say that it has errors or it is to hard to understand, or it is out dated, then you are belittling the Word of God.
Authorized by who? The state? Even you Thaddaeus as a Protestant should know that it was not the KJV the the early Reformers used and it was the KJV that was undertaken as a replacement of the Geneva Bible which was the Bible of the Reformers. But the main problem with the KJV is; that it's primary witness manuscripts are Masoretic (Masoretes were Talmudic Jews decended from the Pharisees) The KJV is taken from the Cairo Geniza (A.D. 895) the Leningrad Codex (A.D. 916, the Codex Babyonicus (A.D. 1008) the Aleppo Codex A.D 900, the British Museum Codex (A.D. 950) and the Reuchlin Codex (A.D. 1105) Another witness is the Christ hating Talmud itself which is a work of total depravity, abhorrant racism and is completely unholy.

Do you know what masora means? it means 'tradition', Masoretes were Jewish scribes who maintained the tradition of the elders, now the 'tradition of the elders' is of Babylonian origin, just like the Jews of today have a Talmudic religion that is derived from their 'holy' book which is - 'The Babylonian Talmud' this religion is call 'Judaism'! Why? because when the Tribe of Judah was taken into captivity by the Babylonians, the 'Jews' remained in Kingdom of Judah, the 'Jews' in the kingdom of Judah remained because they were not in the Tribe of Judah, as the Bible explains the 'Jews' were from Elath Edom and they had been conquered by the Israelites under David, they became subjects of the Tribe of Judah and so were called in the Bible by their Aramaic name 'Yehudiy' - translated 'Jews', the Bible always make the distinction between 'Jews' and Israelites as they are not the same people, the Israelites and the tribe of Judah are decended from Abraham by Jacob/Israel and the 'Jews' are decended from Abraham by Esau, it was Esau's decendents who were known as Edomites and became the Temple Pharisee, Sadducees and Scribes.

Now this is why the Masoretic Scripts are rejected by many Christians all over the world, and thus the KJV must also be held to be corrupted, which leaves us with the Greek manuscripts which are far older and are the scriptures that Jesus, the Apostles and the early Christian Church read and used, we then do declare that Old Hebrew is Phoenician, Phoenician has to be correct and Hebrew is a langauge formed from Aramaic, the Herodian Script and Phoenician, but Hebrew as a language could not have been linguistically complete until 500-600 A.D. which means that it could only have been the Greek Old Testament that was in use at the time of Jesus and Greek Septuagint written in 3rd Century BC could have only been copied from originals written in Phoenician. We would therefore declare that there is a very serious conspiracy in operation of which the KJV is a vital part thereof. In saying this I must also aknowledge that the KJV is for the most part very accurate as a English translation, but it contains errors which are very significant and misleading, I believe that many of these errors are by design and are very dangerous, Christians should learn what they are and have the knowledge to correctly interpret scripture for themselves.
 
Jun 2, 2009
38
1
0
#46
I have already answered this question many times but I do it one more time for you, since I like you so much, if we believe that God could inspire, men to record scriptures such as Moses, Paul or John, and we believe, that nothing is impossible with God, then why is it so hard for everyone to believe That God could even inspired a bunch of translators, when they translated His Word into english?????????? if you consider the Old testament part of scriptures then you have answered your own question about ALL SCRIPTURES. If we believe that God could inspire the translators then why can't we believe that God could inspire the ones that authorized the Holy Bible Also. which one would be the one that our forefathers authorized for us to use. if they authorized the KJV then I would say the manuscript that they used for this authorized english translation. so if the JKB was the authorized translation for almost 400 years now, when You say that it has errors or it is to hard to understand, or it is out dated, then you are belittling the Word of God. that is the problem I have with the push to turn to the new modern perversions, to get people to lay down the Word of God for almost 400 years, now we have to tear it down.

take religion some say that all religions leads to God but this can't Be. for one religion, called christianity, leader states that He is THE way, no man cometh unto God, but through Him, Jesus. so all religions can't be true either most religions are true and christianity is false or either all religions have some truth. but Christianity is THE Truth. which I would hope that most in this forum would agree with this,

so now translations some say that all translations are true, but unless all translations agree then all translations can't be true, either all translations have some truth, But God is not the Author of Confusion And God can not Lie, so unless all translations agree, then all translations can't be inspired by God. this is why we need to stay with the one that was for almost 400 years now Ty,

also in His Grace
NO, YOU STILL DID NOT ANSWER ANY OF MY QUESTIONS. Is it because you can't? But I'll try another question. Since no ORIGINAL AUTOGRAPHS exist, except for a few fragments, are the copies of the original autographs inspired even though they have thousands of variant readings? If so, that trumps your very argument that something can't be inspired if it doesn't fully line up something of like kind. If not, how could we have ANY translation that is inspired if it didn't come from inspired writings to begin with? Also, as a PASTOR, I am persuaded that you understand the Doctrine of Preservation. Would you be kind enough to explain to me how that works?
 
B

beautyinthestruggle

Guest
#47
The word also tells us, of course don't try to find this in the NIV because they took part of the verse out . whosoever is anger at his brother without cause, yeah so you mess with the word of God, belittle the Word of God. turn the Word of God, into a book full of lies you just gave me cause to be angry as well as any other Christian should be also.


Matthew 5:22 (King James Version)


22But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.


Matthew 5:22 (New International Version)

22But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother[a]will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,[b]' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.


Footnotes:
  1. Matthew 5:22 Some manuscripts brother without cause
  2. Matthew 5:22 An Aramaic term of contempt
Jesus looked upon some people with angry so according to the Niv Jesus wasn't as perfect as people thought he was, according to the Niv , that is

Mark 3:5 (New International Version)


5He looked around at them in anger and, deeply distressed at their stubborn hearts, said to the man, "Stretch out your hand." He stretched it out, and his hand was completely restored.


and sir i guess with the same verse you just judged me with as a sinnner you also judged Jesus with for as much as ye have done it unto the least of these ye have done it unto me also, thank you I have something else to be thankful for I am Praising God That he is my judge and not you.

In His Grace
It just says they'll be in danger of judgment, not that they will sin. I take that to mean, be careful with your anger so that you don't sin.

And does it really matter if yout theology disagrees with it? If that's the way the text is supposed to be...sour grapes.
 
B

Baruch

Guest
#48
QUESTION: When the Holy Spirit inspired Paul to write 2Timothy 3:16, and Paul penned the words in the GREEK language "All scripture is given by inspiration of God..." was the Holy Spirit referring to the words Paul was dictating to be recorded at that time - in Greek - or was he talking about the original Elizabethan English King James Bible Translation produced in 1611, or the modern-day updated versions of what is commonly known as the King James Version (KJV)? Also, in that statement of “All scripture is given by inspiration of God…” was Paul also referring to the Old Testament Hebrew Texts, and if so, which ones? In His Grace!
The ones from Antioch as called the Received Text as scriptures testifies of it once being the birthplace where believers were first called christians and the disciples met at. Scriptures testifies that those who love His words will keep them.

The documents from Alexandria where poetic licensing has been known to have taken place are cirumspect. I would take the Received Text over any other.

NO, YOU STILL DID NOT ANSWER ANY OF MY QUESTIONS. Is it because you can't? But I'll try another question. Since no ORIGINAL AUTOGRAPHS exist, except for a few fragments, are the copies of the original autographs inspired even though they have thousands of variant readings? If so, that trumps your very argument that something can't be inspired if it doesn't fully line up something of like kind. If not, how could we have ANY translation that is inspired if it didn't come from inspired writings to begin with? Also, as a PASTOR, I am persuaded that you understand the Doctrine of Preservation. Would you be kind enough to explain to me how that works?
Jesus said Himself that it is through the scriptures that those that seek life will have knowledge to come to Him. John 5:39-40 Stands to reason and the truth in God's words that He will keep His promise of having the scriptures available to be read.

Those faithful would use them regularly and be worn out but kept up and copied and multiplied by making copies as the recent ones would be used by the faithful.

The ones gathering dust in areas where the christian community has dwindled...

It seems you may be confused. I never belittled the Word of God, attacked the Word of God, or any other such thing. Anyone who has read any of my comments knows better.

The first two quotes would beg to differ.

1 Timothy 6:1Let as many servants as are under the yoke count their own masters worthy of all honour, that the name of God and his doctrine be not blasphemed. 2And they that have believing masters, let them not despise them, because they are brethren; but rather do them service, because they are faithful and beloved, partakers of the benefit. These things teach and exhort. 3If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; 4He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings, 5Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.

God is not saying that every leader is above reproach as all are called to discern everything by the scriptures so as to watch out for each other in love.

2 Timothy 2:22Flee also youthful lusts: but follow righteousness, faith, charity, peace, with them that call on the Lord out of a pure heart. 23But foolish and unlearned questions avoid, knowing that they do gender strifes. 24And the servant of the Lord must not strive; but be gentle unto all men, apt to teach, patient, 25In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth;

Titus 3: 8This is a faithful saying, and these things I will that thou affirm constantly, that they which have believed in God might be careful to maintain good works. These things are good and profitable unto men. 9But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain. 10A man that is an heretick after the first and second admonition reject;

May all consider that it is not enough to ask questions since we are called to edify. It doesn't matter if you had intended to. What matters is today .. while it is still called today.. edify so that we may redeem the time that we have for the days are evil.
 
B

Baruch

Guest
#49
Authorized by who? The state? Even you Thaddaeus as a Protestant should know that it was not the KJV the the early Reformers used and it was the KJV that was undertaken as a replacement of the Geneva Bible which was the Bible of the Reformers. But the main problem with the KJV is; that it's primary witness manuscripts are Masoretic (Masoretes were Talmudic Jews decended from the Pharisees) The KJV is taken from the Cairo Geniza (A.D. 895) the Leningrad Codex (A.D. 916, the Codex Babyonicus (A.D. 1008) the Aleppo Codex A.D 900, the British Museum Codex (A.D. 950) and the Reuchlin Codex (A.D. 1105) Another witness is the Christ hating Talmud itself which is a work of total depravity, abhorrant racism and is completely unholy.


Link please to prove this as the source and not the Received Text.


Do you know what masora means? it means 'tradition', Masoretes were Jewish scribes who maintained the tradition of the elders, now the 'tradition of the elders' is of Babylonian origin, just like the Jews of today have a Talmudic religion that is derived from their 'holy' book which is - 'The Babylonian Talmud' this religion is call 'Judaism'! Why? because when the Tribe of Judah was taken into captivity by the Babylonians, the 'Jews' remained in Kingdom of Judah, the 'Jews' in the kingdom of Judah remained because they were not in the Tribe of Judah, as the Bible explains the 'Jews' were from Elath Edom and they had been conquered by the Israelites under David, they became subjects of the Tribe of Judah and so were called in the Bible by their Aramaic name 'Yehudiy' - translated 'Jews', the Bible always make the distinction between 'Jews' and Israelites as they are not the same people, the Israelites and the tribe of Judah are decended from Abraham by Jacob/Israel and the 'Jews' are decended from Abraham by Esau, it was Esau's decendents who were known as Edomites and became the Temple Pharisee, Sadducees and Scribes.


Exodus 19: 1In the third month, when the children of Israel were gone forth out of the land of Egypt, the same day came they into the wilderness of Sinai. 2For they were departed from Rephidim, and were come to the desert of Sinai, and had pitched in the wilderness; and there Israel camped before the mount. 3And Moses went up unto God, and the LORD called unto him out of the mountain, saying, Thus shalt thou say to the house of Jacob, and tell the children of Israel; 4Ye have seen what I did unto the Egyptians, and how I bare you on eagles' wings, and brought you unto myself. 5Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth is mine: 6And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel. 7And Moses came and called for the elders of the people, and laid before their faces all these words which the LORD commanded him.

Seems to me that all the Israelites are Jews.

As for those that serve in the Temple....

Numbers 3:5And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, 6Bring the tribe of Levi near, and present them before Aaron the priest, that they may minister unto him. 7And they shall keep his charge, and the charge of the whole congregation before the tabernacle of the congregation, to do the service of the tabernacle.
Deuteronomy 18:1The priests the Levites, and all the tribe of Levi, shall have no part nor inheritance with Israel: they shall eat the offerings of the LORD made by fire, and his inheritance. 2Therefore shall they have no inheritance among their brethren: the LORD is their inheritance, as he hath said unto them. 3And this shall be the priest's due from the people, from them that offer a sacrifice, whether it be ox or sheep; and they shall give unto the priest the shoulder, and the two cheeks, and the maw. 4The firstfruit also of thy corn, of thy wine, and of thine oil, and the first of the fleece of thy sheep, shalt thou give him. 5For the LORD thy God hath chosen him out of all thy tribes, to stand to minister in the name of the LORD, him and his sons for ever. 6And if a Levite come from any of thy gates out of all Israel, where he sojourned, and come with all the desire of his mind unto the place which the LORD shall choose; 7Then he shall minister in the name of the LORD his God, as all his brethren the Levites do, which stand there before the LORD.

Joshua 18 :1And the whole congregation of the children of Israel assembled together at Shiloh, and set up the tabernacle of the congregation there. And the land was subdued before them. 2And there remained among the children of Israel seven tribes, which had not yet received their inheritance. 3And Joshua said unto the children of Israel, How long are ye slack to go to possess the land, which the LORD God of your fathers hath given you? 4Give out from among you three men for each tribe: and I will send them, and they shall rise, and go through the land, and describe it according to the inheritance of them; and they shall come again to me. 5And they shall divide it into seven parts: Judah shall abide in their coast on the south, and the house of Joseph shall abide in their coasts on the north. 6Ye shall therefore describe the land into seven parts, and bring the description hither to me, that I may cast lots for you here before the LORD our God. 7But the Levites have no part among you; for the priesthood of the LORD is their inheritance: and Gad, and Reuben, and half the tribe of Manasseh, have received their inheritance beyond Jordan on the east, which Moses the servant of the LORD gave them.

I do not see any room for the descendents of Esau having an inheritance anywhere.

The Pharisees, Sadduccess, and the scribes had to be of the Levites tribe.

I believe your source for this idea of Esau's descendents is forgetting that Judah is a name from the tribe of Judah and so those within are Jews.

2 Kings 16:1In the seventeenth year of Pekah the son of Remaliah Ahaz the son of Jotham king of Judah began to reign. 2Twenty years old was Ahaz when he began to reign, and reigned sixteen years in Jerusalem, and did not that which was right in the sight of the LORD his God, like David his father. 3But he walked in the way of the kings of Israel, yea, and made his son to pass through the fire, according to the abominations of the heathen, whom the LORD cast out from before the children of Israel. 4And he sacrificed and burnt incense in the high places, and on the hills, and under every green tree. 5Then Rezin king of Syria and Pekah son of Remaliah king of Israel came up to Jerusalem to war: and they besieged Ahaz, but could not overcome him. 6At that time Rezin king of Syria recovered Elath to Syria, and drave the Jews from Elath: and the Syrians came to Elath, and dwelt there unto this day.

Israelites were also called Jews otherwise, this story below would hardly be of significance to God's chosen people if all the Jews were wiped out.

Esther 3:2And all the king's servants, that were in the king's gate, bowed, and reverenced Haman: for the king had so commanded concerning him. But Mordecai bowed not, nor did him reverence. 3Then the king's servants, which were in the king's gate, said unto Mordecai, Why transgressest thou the king's commandment? 4Now it came to pass, when they spake daily unto him, and he hearkened not unto them, that they told Haman, to see whether Mordecai's matters would stand: for he had told them that he was a Jew. 5And when Haman saw that Mordecai bowed not, nor did him reverence, then was Haman full of wrath. 6And he thought scorn to lay hands on Mordecai alone; for they had shewed him the people of Mordecai: wherefore Haman sought to destroy all the Jews that were throughout the whole kingdom of Ahasuerus, even the people of Mordecai.


Now this is why the Masoretic Scripts are rejected by many Christians all over the world, and thus the KJV must also be held to be corrupted, which leaves us with the Greek manuscripts which are far older and are the scriptures that Jesus, the Apostles and the early Christian Church read and used, we then do declare that Old Hebrew is Phoenician, Phoenician has to be correct and Hebrew is a langauge formed from Aramaic, the Herodian Script and Phoenician, but Hebrew as a language could not have been linguistically complete until 500-600 A.D. which means that it could only have been the Greek Old Testament that was in use at the time of Jesus and Greek Septuagint written in 3rd Century BC could have only been copied from originals written in Phoenician. We would therefore declare that there is a very serious conspiracy in operation of which the KJV is a vital part thereof. In saying this I must also aknowledge that the KJV is for the most part very accurate as a English translation, but it contains errors which are very significant and misleading, I believe that many of these errors are by design and are very dangerous, Christians should learn what they are and have the knowledge to correctly interpret scripture for themselves.
If that is the reason, it is a poor one. Tradition would also ensure the keeping up of the scriptures.

Your cited examples of errors are not errors but how you are reading them to be errors, thus you are the one in error.

You had posted eslewhere that you would doubt all sources regarding the Received Text, but yet I have already shown by the scriptures that your source of having Esau being the ones serving in the Temple AND having inheritted land as being contrary to the Word of God.

As much as you, out of love, wish to edify and give believers pause, please do consider that now for yourself, okay?
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#50
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Link please to prove this as the source and not the Received Text.

The manuscripts I have given you are the source of the KJV.


Seems to me that all the Israelites are Jews.
Israelites are not the Jews, in the Bible "Jews" are called "Jews" Yehuwdiy, and the Israelites are called Israelites, nowhere in the Bible are they identified as the same people, this is a modern myth which has been propagated since the first Zionist conference in Basil in the 19th Century. You will omly find sources of the "Jews" being the ancient Israelites outside the Bible and from sources that support the Zionist State of Israel that was formed after WWII. The Bible also distinguishes between the Tribe of Judah and the Tribe of Israel, the first time the Bible mentions the Yehuwdiy (Jews) they are at war with the united Israelites and their allies the Syrians. It is simply incorrect both Biblically and Historically to call a Jew an Israelite or visa-versa and the Jews in their historical and religous writings admit this and of course it is a well known fact to Scholars and true Christians who study the Bible that the 'Jews' in the modern Zionist military state of Israel are from eastern Europe, these people trace their ancestors to Khazaria and they call themselve 'Ashkenazim', now, 'Ashkenaz' was a decendant 'Gomer' who was the son of 'Jahpeth' and we find this linage to be dwelling in the same geographical area as the Khazars, who Jewish historians have identified as the ancestors of 90% of modern world Jewry.



I do not see any room for the descendents of Esau having an inheritance anywhere.

The Pharisees, Sadducess, and the scribes had to be of the Levites tribe.
They don't have an inheritence, they lost it to Jacob/Israel.
Well the Sadducees hated the Pharisees but both sects hated Jesus. The Sadducees were Herodians, they either took Herod to be Messiah or were on his party or part of his government, they did not even believe in an afterlife or ressurection, they were not Preists, they were lawyers who served with council and execution of State law, they were carnal, rationalist and selfish and unbelievers, basically they were atheist lawyers and none of them was of Levite decent, they were for the most part Edomite Herodians.

The Pharisees were not Levites, although it was possible for a Levite to be a Pharisee, in fact anybody could become a Pharisee, Paul had been trained as a Pharisee and he was of the tribe of Benjamin, there were women Pharisees also. The Pharisees although opposed to the Sadducees were for the most part also Herodians.

John 1:19

"And this is the record of John, when the Jews sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, "Who art thou?"

This is accurate; we have the 'Jews' who were Herodian Edomites in control of Judea at the time sending preist and Levites, at this time you certainly did not have to be a Levite to be a priest, Levites were just one of the tribes in Judea at the time, but the Levites as a priesthood serving God in his Tabernacle was long gone, most Levites just like most Benjamites and Judahites no longer dwelt in Judea, as it is true that most were carried off with Isarel in the Assyrian captivity and very few returned, as the vast majority is known to have been released to cross the Caucases mountains and migrate into Europe.

John 1:24

"and they which were sent [were]of the Pharisees"

[were] = had been. (marginal notes E.W Bullinger KJV Bible)

Right, in the original scripture we have as Bullinger correctly interprets 'were' is 'had been' and we see that the Jews are distinguished from Levites who are distinguished from priests who are all distinct from Pharisees, A Levite could once have been a Pharisee, but a Pharisee did not have to be a Levite, anybody could be a Pharisee even women, most Pharisees by the time of Christ were Herodian Edomites, so they were in no way decended from Levi, they were decended from Esau.


I believe your source for this idea of Esau's descendents is forgetting that Judah is a name from the tribe of Judah and so those within are Jews.

. 5Then Rezin king of Syria and Pekah son of Remaliah king of Israel came up to Jerusalem to war: and they besieged Ahaz, but could not overcome him. 6At that time Rezin king of Syria recovered Elath to Syria, and drave the Jews from Elath: and the Syrians came to Elath, and dwelt there unto this day.

Israelites were also called Jews otherwise, this story below would hardly be of significance to God's chosen people if all the Jews were wiped out.
No, Israelites are never called 'Jews' in the Bible, that is a myth that has been implanted into your mind, there is no scriptual evidence for this. As the Bible says the first mention of 'Jews' is they are from the conquered city of Elath which was part of Edom but was conquered by the Israelites under David, so we see that the Jews were are war with the Israelites and were made subjects of the Tribe of Judah, they basically became slaves of the tribe of Judah when they lost the war to the Israelites. They dwelt in Elath and Syria at the time was allied with Israel, the Syrians who were Israel's allies attacked the rebel Jews in Elath so that they could secure the port city for both Syria ans Israel while the Israelites were at war in Jerusalem.




See unfortunately we have a problem whereby many Christians are not raeding what the Bible says they are merely casting their institutionalized preconcieved ideas onto the Bible. Because they would rather believe the tradition of men then recieve the truth of the Bible. The Bible never says that 'Jews' are Israelites, not once, 'Jews' is translated from a chaldean word 'Yehuwdiy' because the 'Jews' spoke Chaldean as they were from Edom. 'Yehuwdiy' means a subject of Judah, just like a conquered slave becomes a subject of their conquerer, so the Edomites were called Judeans but 'Judeans' by their their Chaldean name, that's why the Bible never calls them by any other name other then 'Jews', it's a dorogatory term in actual fact if we use it in it's proper linguistic sense.
 
Jan 31, 2009
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Authorized by who? The state? Even you Thaddaeus as a Protestant should know that it was not the KJV the the early Reformers used and it was the KJV that was undertaken as a replacement of the Geneva Bible which was the Bible of the Reformers. But the main problem with the KJV is; that it's primary witness manuscripts are Masoretic (Masoretes were Talmudic Jews decended from the Pharisees) The KJV is taken from the Cairo Geniza (A.D. 895) the Leningrad Codex (A.D. 916, the Codex Babyonicus (A.D. 1008) the Aleppo Codex A.D 900, the British Museum Codex (A.D. 950) and the Reuchlin Codex (A.D. 1105) Another witness is the Christ hating Talmud itself which is a work of total depravity, abhorrant racism and is completely unholy.

Do you know what masora means? it means 'tradition', Masoretes were Jewish scribes who maintained the tradition of the elders, now the 'tradition of the elders' is of Babylonian origin, just like the Jews of today have a Talmudic religion that is derived from their 'holy' book which is - 'The Babylonian Talmud' this religion is call 'Judaism'! Why? because when the Tribe of Judah was taken into captivity by the Babylonians, the 'Jews' remained in Kingdom of Judah, the 'Jews' in the kingdom of Judah remained because they were not in the Tribe of Judah, as the Bible explains the 'Jews' were from Elath Edom and they had been conquered by the Israelites under David, they became subjects of the Tribe of Judah and so were called in the Bible by their Aramaic name 'Yehudiy' - translated 'Jews', the Bible always make the distinction between 'Jews' and Israelites as they are not the same people, the Israelites and the tribe of Judah are decended from Abraham by Jacob/Israel and the 'Jews' are decended from Abraham by Esau, it was Esau's decendents who were known as Edomites and became the Temple Pharisee, Sadducees and Scribes.

Now this is why the Masoretic Scripts are rejected by many Christians all over the world, and thus the KJV must also be held to be corrupted, which leaves us with the Greek manuscripts which are far older and are the scriptures that Jesus, the Apostles and the early Christian Church read and used, we then do declare that Old Hebrew is Phoenician, Phoenician has to be correct and Hebrew is a langauge formed from Aramaic, the Herodian Script and Phoenician, but Hebrew as a language could not have been linguistically complete until 500-600 A.D. which means that it could only have been the Greek Old Testament that was in use at the time of Jesus and Greek Septuagint written in 3rd Century BC could have only been copied from originals written in Phoenician. We would therefore declare that there is a very serious conspiracy in operation of which the KJV is a vital part thereof. In saying this I must also aknowledge that the KJV is for the most part very accurate as a English translation, but it contains errors which are very significant and misleading, I believe that many of these errors are by design and are very dangerous, Christians should learn what they are and have the knowledge to correctly interpret scripture for themselves.
wow you have really been mislead, I don't think satan himself could have done a better job of attacking the word of God,

[SIZE=+1]Where Did the King James Bible Come From?[/SIZE]

[SIZE=-1]Adapted from LET'S WEIGH THE EVIDENCE by Barry Burton. Concerned that the whole issue of "Which Bible?" was confusing members of his church, Burton wrote this easy-to-read summary of the research of many gifted men in the field of Bible translation. Here is just a small portion of this very readable book. [/SIZE]
There Are Two Kinds of Manuscripts:
Accurate Copies
These manuscripts represent the manuscripts from which the "Textus Receptus" or Received Text was taken.
They are the majority of Greek manuscripts which agree with each other and have been accepted by Bible believing Christians down through the centuries. It is from these manuscripts that the King James Bible was translated in 1611.
Corrupted Copies
These manuscripts represent the corrupted copies of the Bible, also known as the Alexandrian manuscripts. These manuscripts, many times, do not even agree with each other. The Vaticanus and Sinaiticus manuscripts are part of this group. These are the manuscripts on which Westcott and Hort and the modern versions rely so heavily.
There are 5,309 surviving Greek manuscripts that contain all or part of the New Testament. These manuscripts agree together 95% of the time. The other 5% account for the differences between the King James and the modern versions.
The modern versions had to use the Textus Receptus, since it contains the majority of the surviving Greek manuscripts. The problem is that, when the Textus Receptus disagreed with the Vaticanus or the Sinaiticus, they preferred these corrupted manuscripts over the Textus Receptus.
That accounts for the 5% corruption in the modern versions. Even these two manuscripts agree with the Textus Receptus much of the time. When they do not agree, it is because Marcion (120-160 AD) or Origin (184-254 AD) or whoever, corrupted them.
 
Jan 31, 2009
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#52
It just says they'll be in danger of judgment, not that they will sin. I take that to mean, be careful with your anger so that you don't sin.

And does it really matter if yout theology disagrees with it? If that's the way the text is supposed to be...sour grapes.
that was my point ty so much but the sciptures referred to in proverbs I think were the ones I was refering to
 
Jan 31, 2009
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#53
NO, YOU STILL DID NOT ANSWER ANY OF MY QUESTIONS. Is it because you can't? But I'll try another question. Since no ORIGINAL AUTOGRAPHS exist, except for a few fragments, are the copies of the original autographs inspired even though they have thousands of variant readings? If so, that trumps your very argument that something can't be inspired if it doesn't fully line up something of like kind. If not, how could we have ANY translation that is inspired if it didn't come from inspired writings to begin with? Also, as a PASTOR, I am persuaded that you understand the Doctrine of Preservation. Would you be kind enough to explain to me how that works?
[SIZE=+1]Where Did the King James Bible Come From?[/SIZE]

Adapted from LET'S WEIGH THE EVIDENCE by Barry Burton. Concerned that the whole issue of "Which Bible?" was confusing members of his church, Burton wrote this easy-to-read summary of the research of many gifted men in the field of Bible translation. Here is just a small portion of this very readable book.
There Are Two Kinds of Manuscripts:
Accurate Copies
These manuscripts represent the manuscripts from which the "Textus Receptus" or Received Text was taken.
They are the majority of Greek manuscripts which agree with each other and have been accepted by Bible believing Christians down through the centuries. It is from these manuscripts that the King James Bible was translated in 1611.
Corrupted Copies
These manuscripts represent the corrupted copies of the Bible, also known as the Alexandrian manuscripts. These manuscripts, many times, do not even agree with each other. The Vaticanus and Sinaiticus manuscripts are part of this group. These are the manuscripts on which Westcott and Hort and the modern versions rely so heavily.
There are 5,309 surviving Greek manuscripts that contain all or part of the New Testament. These manuscripts agree together 95% of the time. The other 5% account for the differences between the King James and the modern versions.
The modern versions had to use the Textus Receptus, since it contains the majority of the surviving Greek manuscripts. The problem is that, when the Textus Receptus disagreed with the Vaticanus or the Sinaiticus, they preferred these corrupted manuscripts over the Textus Receptus.
That accounts for the 5% corruption in the modern versions. Even these two manuscripts agree with the Textus Receptus much of the time. When they do not agree, it is because Marcion (120-160 AD) or Origin (184-254 AD) or whoever, corrupted them.


did you notice sir that 95% of the greek manuscripts agree:There are 5,309 surviving Greek manuscripts that contain all or part of the New Testament. These manuscripts agree together 95% of the time. The other 5% account for the differences between the King James and the modern versions.


yes God can do all things, man can do all things through Christ, His true word can be preserved if Not you are calling God himself A lair

Mt 24:35HEAVEN AND EARTH shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.Mr 13:31HEAVEN AND EARTH shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.
I don't know what means, God will use to preserve His Word, my thoughts are Not His thought,

and sir if the Kjb is the corrupt one then He word did pass away for almost 400 years and all those people during that time didn't have the Word of God, excuse my french here But. Bologna
 
S

Slepsog4

Guest
#54
NOTE: There is not one essential doctrine that is either established or destroyed by the differences in the Manuscripts or in the translations from them when the translation follows a formal equivalency method (ie, literal, word for word).
 
E

EmersonWolfe

Guest
#55
Two statements:

1) One plus one is two
2) When one is added to one the result will most definitely be two

Both statements are true and say the exact same thing.
 
S

SamIam

Guest
#56
Two statements:

1) One plus one is two
2) When one is added to one the result will most definitely be two

Both statements are true and say the exact same thing.

actually thats three statments... because the very last line is a statment to
 
E

EmersonWolfe

Guest
#57
actually thats three statments... because the very last line is a statment to
Ha, well YEAH, but the third statement is about the first two. Those two are grouped together for a reason... I never said that "Two statements" was a description for the entire post ;)
 
S

SamIam

Guest
#58
Yes but when you say two statements you expect to see only two lol but instead there are three..... like...... 1 2 3
 
B

Baruch

Guest
#59
NOTE: There is not one essential doctrine that is either established or destroyed by the differences in the Manuscripts or in the translations from them when the translation follows a formal equivalency method (ie, literal, word for word).
But there are essentially many false teachings supported by the modern versions derived from the changed meanings in God 's word. Compare that to the King James Bible, then you can see why so many debates are here in this forum.

Like eternal security. Are we in the process of being saved or are we saved?

http://www.christianchat.com/showthread.php?t=2243

Like Jesus is the only Way to the Father as He is the only Mediator between us and God, but yet the Holy Spirit has been given the office as the "go to " Person of the Trinity as well so is Jesus the only Mediator or not?

Compare Romans 8:26-27 of the KJV with NIV.

Many have been misled by other Bible translations to think the Holy Spirit needs to utter groans or make sounds for Him to intercede as this errant version below misleads:

Romans 8: 26In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express. 27And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for the saints in accordance with God's will. NIV


Verse 26 implies sounds being made as in how the Holy Spirit can intercede, but in verse 27, we see bad grammar being applied here in translations. How can the "he" which is a Third Person apart from us in searching our hearts and apart from the Spirit to knowing the mind of the Spirit... be the Spirit Himself that makes intercessions for us? Thus the Spirit cannot be the "he" in verse 27 as KJV correctly applies below.

Romans 8:26Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. 27And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God. KJV

Now note verse 26. The Spirit maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered... hence.. no sound at all. Then we note what appears to be a mistake in the KJV as they applied "itself" in referring the Holy Spirit BUT... if we look at the verse as a whole... it is written that the Holy Spirit itself maketh intercession with groanings not uttered, thus leading the believer in asking how then can the Holy Spirit intercede?

This leading to verse 27 of the Third person of the he in searcheth our hearts and knoweth the mind of the Spirit in us... and that he is Jesus Christ, the only Mediator between God and man...which conludes as to the reference in according to the will of God.... thus explaining the "itself" application towards the Holy Spirit as the Comforter is the "means" by which Jesus is Our Mediator... as "it" is referring to the Holy Spirit being the means as "self" refers to the Person of the Trinity. Thus the Holy Spirit makes intercessions for us indirectly.. as in a passive sense since it is by Jesus by Whom intercession is made by knowing the mind of the Spirit is how the Father knows already before we ask in prayer.

Like how the offenses of idols have been toned down in the catholic Bibles.

Like how it is on the believer to look to themselves to finish and not resting in Jesus to do it. Compare 1 Peter 4:18-19 where KJV has commit to mean entrust solely on the Lord in the keeping of your soul in well doing whereas the others place it as the believer doing good religiously while they suffer.

Anyway... there is a huge difference between the KJV and other Bibles in defending the faith.

 
B

Baruch

Guest
#60
Israelites are not the Jews, in the Bible "Jews" are called "Jews" Yehuwdiy, and the Israelites are called Israelites, nowhere in the Bible are they identified as the same people, this is a modern myth which has been propagated since the first Zionist conference in Basil in the 19th Century.


They don't have an inheritence, they lost it to Jacob/Israel.

Well the Sadducees hated the Pharisees but both sects hated Jesus. The Sadducees were Herodians, they either took Herod to be Messiah or were on his party or part of his government, they did not even believe in an afterlife or ressurection, they were not Preists, they were lawyers who served with council and execution of State law, they were carnal, rationalist and selfish and unbelievers, basically they were atheist lawyers and none of them was of Levite decent, they were for the most part Edomite Herodians.
The Pharisees were not Levites, although it was possible for a Levite to be a Pharisee, in fact anybody could become a Pharisee, Paul had been trained as a Pharisee and he was of the tribe of Benjamin, there were women Pharisees also. The Pharisees although opposed to the Sadducees were for the most part also Herodians.

John 1:19

"And this is the record of John, when the Jews sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, "Who art thou?"

This is accurate; we have the 'Jews' who were Herodian Edomites in control of Judea at the time sending preist and Levites, at this time you certainly did not have to be a Levite to be a priest, Levites were just one of the tribes in Judea at the time, but the Levites as a priesthood serving God in his Tabernacle was long gone, most Levites just like most Benjamites and Judahites no longer dwelt in Judea, as it is true that most were carried off with Isarel in the Assyrian captivity and very few returned, as the vast majority is known to have been released to cross the Caucases mountains and migrate into Europe.


I had given verses that specifically given the offices of priesthood to the Levites. Of course, not all offices of a priest will be available for all Levites.

No, Israelites are never called 'Jews' in the Bible,

Matthew 27:11And Jesus stood before the governor: and the governor asked him, saying, Art thou the King of the Jews? And Jesus said unto him, Thou sayest.

Matthew 27:37And set up over his head his accusation written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.

Both Matthew and Luke gave the lineages of the parents of Jesus so to imply Jesus being an Edomite is false.

John 2:13And the Jews' passover was at hand, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.

How can the passover be the Jews' then when it was the Israelites that came out of Egypt?
 
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