So this was an interesting problem that I've done some research on today. I've pretty much arrived at a conclusion - a theory - but nothing unquestionably firm just yet. So I'd like to list the passages in question and turn the problem over to you folks out there. Maybe there is someone out there who has an even better theory.
1 Samuel 17:50 (ASV) So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and smote the Philistine, and slew him; but there was no sword in the hand of David.
2 Samuel 21:19 (ASV) And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob; and Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim the Beth-lehemite slew Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
2 Samuel 21:19 (KJV) And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
1 Chronicles 20:5 (ASV) And there was again war with the Philistines; and Elhanan the son of Jair slew Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
In the ASV there appears to be a contradiction. That same contradiction doesn't appear in the KJV. Why do you think that is?
1 Samuel 17:50 (ASV) So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and smote the Philistine, and slew him; but there was no sword in the hand of David.
2 Samuel 21:19 (ASV) And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob; and Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim the Beth-lehemite slew Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
2 Samuel 21:19 (KJV) And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
1 Chronicles 20:5 (ASV) And there was again war with the Philistines; and Elhanan the son of Jair slew Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
In the ASV there appears to be a contradiction. That same contradiction doesn't appear in the KJV. Why do you think that is?