6 Questions for Jehovah's Witnesses

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

Why would I accept that? No, that is not a valid description of my arguemnt, becuase the word "one" in this passage (not there) is not being debated. Instead "ONLY true".

Now lets use the correct words in your illustration.

the USA has ONLY on TRUE president. This would in fact imply that all other presidents must be false.

It would not necessarily imply that for PAST presidents. but that is not the argument here.

Jesus is God presently, with the Father, so your illustration is not valid.

Yes if ONLY TRUE GOD means the Father is the ONLY TRUE, then all others are false.

Nothing in the context of John demands me to interpret God as meaning something other than what it means.

Some passage do, yet the context demands it, like angels. etc.

But you all cant explain Jn 17 without going outside of Jn, just as I cant prove it means true God, so the passage itself proves nothing for either side without the remote context of scripture.

Same answer as above.

The passages say ONE GOD and ONE LORD. If ONE GOD excludes Christ from being God, then ONE lord excludes God from being lord.

That is just consistency. Unless you do not use this as a proof text, then you have no problem. If you do then you must be consistent.

Acts 2:36 again is speaking of Jesus in human form, as God has exalted him. Has nothign to do with before he came, or what he is now.

1 Corinthians 8:4 we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is none other God but one.

6 - But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord [kurios] Jesus by whom are all things, and we exist through Him.

Mt 6:24 No one can serve two masters [kurios]; for either he will hate the one and love the other, or he will hold to one and despise the other. You cannot serve God and mammon.

Notice that Master/Lord is used interchangeable with God the Father who is in heaven when Jesus speaks.

So the Father is also our Master/Lord.

Yet Jesus said no man can serve two Masters.

Does that mean we cannot serve the Father and the Son?

Then that would make Jesus a false God. Sense in the Bible he is called God. Only if was accept "God" means different things every time it is mentioned with Jesus. Yet the remote context of Jesus, being eternal, creator, ect, poses a big problem for me just to write off the word as meaning something other than it's normal interpretation.

Well then, if true, then that would lead me to understand ONLY savior, or no ohter savior, is not a term that excludes God, Christ, or the people you mentioned. In fact it would make sense that it must be comparing God to the pagan idols, and not demanding their is no other, but no other comapraed to idoaltry.

So then by this understanding I should also understand this to be case in Jn 17:3 and in I cor 8: etc.

Jesus could Call God the ONLY true God. He was on earth, and he was meaning it in the sense of everything else (paganism,ect). Just because he refers to God in this sense does not exclude himself.

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

More tomorrow Im going to bed now, thanks for the good discussion. Goodnight Neverland

TJ12 · Nov 5, 2012

Hi feedm3,

Thanks for the response.

So let's get specific here, you agree that Jesus is spoken of as a creature in Colossians 1:15, correct? This is important for the context.

What of my question from last time? I asked:

feedm3 said:

I disagree, and scripture doesn't support this. This is merely an assertion on your part. It's really circular reasoning in that in order to ultimately prove that Jesus is God, you have to begin with the premise that Jesus is God. Scripture states plainly, Jesus is "the beginning of the creation by God." (Revelation 3:14)

feedm3 said:

This is your statement, but it doesn't fit well with the context of Colossians as I'll demonstrate once you answer my questions above. Notice again, you have to assume, based on your prior beliefs, that "firstborn" refers to rank only, and has nothing to do with the temporal sense without any proof to warrant this narrow definition. I believe that it is meant in its fullest sense, as referring to both time and rank just as it does in verse 18.

Further, you just said "he was human". Paul wrote Colossians after Jesus was raised up, and yet he doesn't say Jesus was of the firstborn of creation, but that he is the firstborn of creation. Do you believe that Jesus still is a creature as Paul wrote?

feedm3 said:

It's simply an assertion on your part that he was immortal before becoming a man. Please post the scripture that says he wasn't able to die before coming to the earth.

feedm3 said:

I'm saying that Colossians 1:15, if read in a vacuum, merely proves that Jesus is a creature. That is true. But there's good reason to believe that he is the first creature both in rank and time just as he was literally the first one raised to everlasting life. Answer my questions at the top, and I'll explain this further.

feedm3 said:

Again, he was the very first one, the beginning, of those raised from death to everlasting life. This is why he's called 'the beginning, the firstborn from the dead', 'the first and the last', 'the firstfruits', etc.

Just as anointed Christians look forward to partaking of the divine nature and immortality, this is what Jesus has been given first. He did not have it previously, this was an exaltation for his victory.

feedm3 said:

Asking for the glory back he had previously refers to his more glorious spirit nature, which Paul distinguishes from the less glorious physical nature Christ took up. (1 Corinthians 15:35-49) Paul says he was 'raised a spirit'.

TJ12 · Nov 5, 2012

Hi again feedm3,

Let's make this real simple. At Exodus 7:1, Jehovah God refers to Moses as "a god". Was Moses a false god, yes or no?

Thank you.

TJ12 · Nov 5, 2012

feedm3 said:

Actually, I can. Jesus appeals to the passage in Psalm 82 I posted earlier in his defense:

"Is it not written in your Law, 'I said, you are gods'? If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?" (John 10:34-36)

Take some time to understand his logic here. He's being accused of blasphemy for calling himself God's Son. His enemies say that he's claiming to be God or a god. So what does Jesus reference? Here's the passage:

"I said, 'You are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you.'" (Psalm 82:6)

So Jehovah considered these men, who were corrupt as the context shows, his 'sons' in a sense. Jesus likewise, called himself God's Son. These ones in the psalm were called 'gods' by God himself, and "Scripture cannot be broken", it cannot be wrong. So if Jesus, who was doing good works--as he is sure to point out--took on no greater titles than what God bestowed upon men who were not doing good works, this proves that Jesus' enemies' accusations of blasphemy are unfounded.

The only way this defense makes any sense at all is to understand that Jesus is appealing to the use of 'god' in a relative, limited sense, and then compares this to the way he uses the title! Therefore, Jesus is 'god' in the same manner that the judges in Israel were called such.

homwardbound · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

Yes you are pulling out scripture yet it is 12 thousand from each tribe for 12 tribes it did not mention Jehovah's witness this is refferring to the first chosen Israelites. Secondly this doctrine you are indoctrineated with is an addition for when I was 8 years of age I had two Jehovah witnesses ladies elderly knock on my door in Sacramento Ca. were I grew up. The first words out of their mouth were DID YOU KNOW THAT ONLY 144,00O PEOPLE ARE GOING TO GO TO HEAVEN. i SAID WELL THAT IS TOO BAD BECAUSE i AM 144,001 AND SHUT MY DOOR. They had not added that second part of the sea of glass where John saw a multitude at that time.

Was Abraham a Jehovah's witness? WAs Noah? Was Jonah, was Jacob, was Moses. and where in the bible does it say that when you believe in me Christ that you are to become a Jehovahs' witness or any other denomination. Man just like Nimrod is evil wanted to build a tower unto God so he could kill God. Man when born here on earth is born a God of the flesh selfish flesh and makes his own doctrines and gets others to follow them. So who are you serving God or yuor denomination.
Thirdly I am not here to fight of the flesh as Peter wanted to when they came to get Jesus and Peter pulled out his sword and cut off the man's ear. Jesus responded had Peter out away his sword reminded Peter that his kingdom is of heaven not this earth, and all that believe are invited. then he restored the man's ear, WoW!!!!!!!, if that were me I 'd believe instantly, but man being of the flesh wants his cake and eat it too, no matter who he hurts or excludes. So is your denomination the only one the only one that knows truth and are only the Jehovah's witnesses going to heaven? You know in your own Soul that this is a lie. And are hurting inside trying to do your best to please God and keep falling short from perfection. God never asked anyone of us to figure it out anywhere in the Bible. God did ask for us to trust God period over a thousand times. You know why because GOD has already got it all figured out. Man in the way, Denominations in the way no real trust man paving his own path(s) to God
Jehovah's witness along with all sects are all working their way to heaven and noone by their flesh acts will ever please God Jesus is the only flesh that ever pleased God and no other flesh can ever for none of us are born of a Virgin, Jesus was and this why Christ is the Narrow gate to heaven. Who did Christ go against in his day, why the clergy because they were playing God usiing God's laws to entrap the people. What is differant today it is still going on today. And Christ came to set us free each person individually and thus having an independant relationship with God Almighty, personal. Is your relationship personal? Who is your teacher? read Hebrews 8:11- 13 11 No longer will they teach their neighbor,
or say to one another, ‘Know the Lord,’
because they will all know me,
from the least of them to the greatest.
12 For I will forgive their wickedness
and will remember their sins no more.”
13 By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.

I appreciate you trying to expel what man has taught you throuhg your denomination, but you are misled, go to the Bible and read the love story of God to you unconditionally. Forget about us here, your place of worship here and just seek out God the creator of all and God will teach you truth through God's Holy Spirit of truth, where you can stop the sins you are committing and not liking it. God wants to rebirth you in his Spirit not any denominational one where the enemy has come as an angel of light to fool the very elect, and you are from God's vantage point an elect. So just seek to know the only true God that loves you unconditionally, whether you are a Jehovah's witness or any other denomination.
Love you deeply As God does
Homwardbound I am

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

No, I am for the sake of argument agreeing with your group argument, just to show even if that were true, it still does not define Jesus is a human and capable of death before his incarnation.

And you agree that "firstborn" of the dead is referring to rank - correct?

Only circualr if you explain away the volume of scripture that shows he is God, Green posted them. So false premise is not true, because there are too many passages supporting.

You assume it to mean these based on your false premise that Jesus is not God, and that while in human form his conditions always were his conditions. Definitely not warranted by scripture, and in fact is quite a leap considering what the Bible says about him.

So your saying because Paul uses past tense to show Jesus, (the one they knew - human form) means he is still human?

If he cannot talk about Jesus' incarnation then why did Jesus come? How could they teach a gospel of death and Resurrection without referring back to him who came and did these things in human form?

Death is a consequence of sin.

So now your saying before Jesus came to earth he was able to die?

Please post a scripture that says he was able to die before he came to earth, or that he sinned before or after his incarnation.

Here is my support:
Death was/is a consequence of sin - Rom 5:12

Jesus had no sin - Heb 4:15

Death was a consequence for MAN not everything that is living visible and invisible.

So My conclusion that he could not die before he became human, is logical, yours that he could not, is not.

So show your reasoning.

These passages tell us much:
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: <----Places him equal with God when he was in the form of God.

7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: <------Took upon - the form of men

8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. <-------ONLY then was he able to die a man's death

9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: <-----Firstborn of every creature - a name above all

10 That at the name of Jesus ( Jesus his human name which is preached) every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth

Yet IN Jesus:
Col 1:19 For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell(fullness of the Godhead bodily)

That's not what it says. It says he is the "firstborn from the dead". Nothing about everlasting life. This you must go outside of Col 1 to support. So then the passage by itself "in a vacuum" does not support what you say if you know he was not the first to be raised.

He looked forward to being restored back to this, which separated him from the Christian hope.

5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was

And what was that?:
Before the world was he was:
1. Creator of all things - Gen 1:1 (Elohim) with Jn 1:1, 10 and Col 1:16
2. Before all things - Col 1:16
3. in the form of God Phip 2:5-f.
4. Equal with God Philip 2:5-f.
5. was the word, who was with God and was God - Jn 1:1

In fact Jn 1:1 tells us without a doubt.

In the beginning was the word and the world was with God and the word was God.

You believe that "GOD" is a name of the Father. It is not. IT is his classification.

Adam, eve, Seth = Man

Father, Son, Holy Sprit = God

You would have Jn 1:1 replaced with Adam and Eve to read

In the beginning their was EVE, and Eve was with ADAM, and EVE was ADAM (an adam NWT).

Does not make sense. Yet if you understand God is not a name but the class, you realize John 1:1 did not need the JW paraphrase, and supports my conclusion He could not die, and he is God.

Now I have showed you much support for why he was God, why he could not die, why him in human form is different than what he was.

So I have done what you asked, now you show me scripture for why you believe Jesus COULD DIE before he came in human form.

And seeing death is a consequence of sin, show me where it says he sinned.

That is forced, has nothing to do with Jn 17. Read the passages above.

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

Like I said, Outside of Jn 17.

If no, then was Moses a true God?

TJ12 · Nov 5, 2012

Hi feedm3,

You're still bypassing simple questions I've posed to you and instead gone way off on tangents. Please give straightforward answers to these questions so that I may continue:

1. Ephesians 1:20-21 reads, "[God] seated [Jesus] at his right hand in the heavenly places, far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and above every name that is named, not only in this age but also in the one to come." Does this mean that Jesus himself has no rule or authority or power or dominion, and certainly no name, given that he's seated far above all of these? If not, please explain why not.

2. Is Moses a false god, based on his being called 'god' at Exodus 7:1?

3. Why did Jesus appeal to Psalm 82 in his defense against his enemies at John 10?

Thank you.

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

I have answered all your questions and posed some for you of which you have no answered (If I do miss one form time to time it's not on purpose). Second, I have given you a logical argument that refutes everything your saying, now your going to start acting as if I am not answering you to avoid what I am showing you, or at least it seems that way.

Yes Moses is a false God if ONLY true GOd means ONLY the Father is God.

Dont know why Jesus applealed to Psalm 82, maybe I will think on that, still does not prove your point in any way.

Now happy I answered those? What about everything else I said and asked? You dont have to answer anything if you dont want.

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

Oh I see I did not answer this one.

OF course not. How would you come to that conclusion?

This happened AFTER he was resurrected. What's your point?

He came to earth (gave up much "emptied himself". Lived as a man, died as a man. Does not mean he was always a man, does not mean he could always die.

He was raised from the dead, and is the firstborn of the dead and the living in Rank.

He now is seated on the right hand of the Father above all that you mentioned above.

AND?

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

Exo 7:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.

Are you saying God is all powerful but cannot make one a God?

He said a god unto Pharoah. Does that mean, to me and you? NOPE So what is the sense of this word here?

I have made thee a god - At Moses' word every plague shall come, and at his command each shall be removed. Thus Moses must have appeared as a god to Pharaoh.

Now should I take this passage to mean that Moses was literally made into God like the Father? Or figurative showing Moses' power against Pharaoh?

This is not a good argument. Do you beleive Moses was really made into God or a god? So Moses' was now literally one of Pharoah's gods? This really is not making sense.

TJ12 · Nov 5, 2012

Hello feedm3,

Take a breath. There's no need to get so worked up. And it's helpful to me if you respond just one post at a time.

In response to the passage that calls Moses a god, you said:

Notice what you did? You qualified the type of 'god' that Moses is! No, he's obviously not the Almighty, nor is he a false god, he is a god in a relative sense in that he has real power delegated to him to use against Pharaoh.

We've made progress, because now you've recognized that a 'god' in scripture is not necessarily just true or false. There are 'gods' that are real but are in a lesser sense gods than the true God. Moses is a type of god in the Bible, not true and not false.

feedm3 said:

Well I'm glad you'll think on it. But the fact that you don't know why he made the appeal, and yet somehow you know it has nothing to do with my point is revealing. It means that you've made your mind up before you even know what you believe about it.

In regards to my question on whether or not Paul's statement at Ephesians 1 meant that Jesus did not have power, a name, etc, you said:

Well, I agree. But please explain exactly how it can be in your view that if the text says Jesus is above all powers, he can still have power--wasn't he placed above all of them? If he's above every name, how is it you can say he has a name, after all, he's above every name, isn't he? Or was Paul lying?

Thanks for your patience!

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12 said:

Not getting worked up, just know where that leads.

No, I am saying he is speaking of God to pharohoah in a figrarive sense. The context shows this, Do you believe Moses was literally a God to pharoah? This passages really is not helping. Any stundent of the word knows when to interprete literal and figuartive based on teh context.

Wrong, your trying really hard to force that based on Exodus. Though even if "god" is used sometimes in a lesser sense, then that still does not prove anything in Jn 17:3 because it can only be interpreted based on outside support.

So then, it is the remote context that will determine what is meant. Your foucing on a few passages, one of which a figratived sense is uded to describe how Moses would be like in the eyes of Pharaoh.

Niether of these prove yoru postion. Their is a mountin of passages you are not dealing with.

So what? Do you think If Psa means gods in a lesser sense that demands that is how it is interpreted concerning Christ?

I said I will think on it, which means I will study it, and see why he referred to it, and what it meant. Instead of just trying to give an answer of the top of my head.

Yet I dont have to know everything in scripture in order to know when something is false, just as I dont have to know every woman on earth to know which one is my wife.

So please do not try and act as if I because I am not willing to answer something until I have studied it further means I cannot have a stance on the deity of Christ.

This really does not make sense. I dont know if you just dont see it, or if your just trying to come up with anything.

Saying he is above, does not mean he does not have. How you came to that is beyond me.

If I say I am above all names in my class, it does not mean I am not part of the class. If I say I am above all power, it means my power is superior.

Don't really know where your going with that one.

cfultz3 · Nov 5, 2012

TJ12,

Though I may or may not agree with you, but I must at least recoomend you on your willingness to defend your religion. I have but one thing to ask, as it should be the foundation of any communication. Not you, but your religion: who do they say Jesus is?

From that answer, we learn if that religion builds upon the foundation of Christ or upon sand. Thank you for your time.

feedm3 · Nov 5, 2012

Okay, I have looked at the Hebrew, the Greek, and differnt commentaries on this passage. NOt looking for one that agree with me, but looking for one that makes the most sense. Just so you know I even read a watchtower interpretatoin of this, just ot see if maybe it had somthing that I never thought of.

Rather than posting the entire commentaries and studies i read, just this paraphrase I found will be sufficient to express the view I agree with the most:

First what do we know about Jn 10?

1. the Jews wanted to stone him for making himself equal with God.
2. Jesus never denied this fact.
3. After Jesus alludes to Psa 82, they want to stone him again.

This shows it was not intended to convince them he was not equal with God, but the he was reenforcing his arugemnt that he was God. If those PS can be referred as "gods" in which many scholars agree to mean "judges", and they could not even do miracles as him, then he was able to take that title to it's most literal sense, and prove his nature.

The paraphrase:

"When I said, "I and the Father are one", you should rightly stone me if I were a mere creature. But I am not a creature. But Ps 82 is valid scripture, just as it reads and it calls wicked judges "gods" and "sons of God" on the basis that they were acting as agents of God in regulating the Law of Moses. What this Ps 82 is saying, is that God Almighty Himself is the one who calls these creatures, "gods". Because this is so obviously what Ps 82 teaches, some of you have rejected it as corrupted and invalid scripture. But this scripture is valid and it says what it means because scripture is divinely protect by God from the very corruption you have imagined. Rejecting this text as scripture is not the solution. You have not yet comprehended what this text is saying. God was foreshadowing by way of antitype, the fact that certain men can function among humanity as though they were God himself. Acting on behalf of God as his divinely commissioned agent. This is exactly my role today as I stand before you. I am not God's agent in regards to mere civil law, but in all spiritual things. If the human judges of Ps 82 can be called "gods" because they were appointed agents of God, how much more should the divine Son of God be called this same title "god"? If they wear the title it by privilege, how much more should I, Jesus wear it by nature, as my inherent right!

BananaPie · Nov 5, 2012

Laodicea said:

A. Only 144,000 are eligible

WordGaurdian · Nov 6, 2012

feedm3 said:

Isa 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.
Isa 43:12 I have declared, and have saved, and I have shewed, when there was no strange god among you: therefore ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, that I am God.

Isa 44:8 Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.

Isa 62:2 And the Gentiles shall see thy righteousness, and all kings thy glory: and thou shalt be called by a new name, which the mouth of the LORD shall name.
Isa 62:3 Thou shalt also be a crown of glory in the hand of the LORD, and a royal diadem in the hand of thy God.

Just to clarify on a couple of things for those that do not have a translator at hand.... in the Old translation(Hebrew) wherever it says LORD above... it says Jehovah. So just to put a clarification on that. So in a word... the people calling themselves witnesses of Jehovah. Is calling themselves this because they prefered to be seen as witnesses of Jehovah. The question we got to ask concerning the argument made about a new name... in verse 2 it says (which the mouth of the LORD shall name).

Now with all fareness to all, but Jesus never ever called anybody Christians...

Act 11:26 And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that a whole year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught much people. And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch.
By the Mouth of Men people were called Christians....not by the Mouth of the LORD.
Jesus called the people disciples.

Joh 13:35 By this shall all men know that ye are my disciples, if ye have love one to another.

There are many institutions with various names who serve God, please have grace in your understanding.

feedm3 said:

Deu 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:
Mar 12:29 And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:
Mar 12:30 And thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength: this is the first commandment.
Mar 12:31 And the second is like, namely this, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. There is none other commandment greater than these.

Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

Joh 10:38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
1Co 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

feedm3 said:

Rev 7:3 Saying, Hurt not the earth, neither the sea, nor the trees, till we have sealed the servants of our God in their foreheads.
Rev 7:4 And I heard the number of them which were sealed: and there were sealed an hundred and forty and four thousand of all the tribes of the children of Israel.
Rev 7:5 Of the tribe of Juda were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Reuben were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Gad were sealed twelve thousand.
Rev 7:6 Of the tribe of Aser were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Nepthalim were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Manasses were sealed twelve thousand.
Rev 7:7 Of the tribe of Simeon were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Levi were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Issachar were sealed twelve thousand.
Rev 7:8 Of the tribe of Zabulon were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Joseph were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Benjamin were sealed twelve thousand.
Rev 7:9 After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;
Rev 7:10 And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.

Their are those that will serve in the time of the Great Tribulation as witnesses. These are not going to be the only people on earth that is going to be saved, but are kept apart(protected) as to what will happen to the earth and sees as servants of God declaring the Word.
For in verse 9 it speaks of the ones that were saved by the LAMB... to which no man could number of ALL NATIONS, and kindreds and people and tongues. So what is declared as the 144 000 are those whom God will choose to serve as witnesses during the Tribulation.

feedm3 said:

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

The WORD WAS GOD.. Not the Word was "a god".

Deu 32:36 For the LORD shall judge his people, and repent himself for his servants, when he seeth that their power is gone, and there is none shut up, or left.
Deu 32:37 And he shall say, Where are their gods, their rock in whom they trusted,
Deu 32:38 Which did eat the fat of their sacrifices, and drank the wine of their drink offerings? let them rise up and help you, and be your protection.
Deu 32:39 See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand.
Deu 32:40 For I lift up my hand to heaven, and say, I live for ever.

AGAIN...
Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

feedm3 said:

AGAIN...
Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

feedm3 said:

AGAIN...
Deu 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:
Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

WordGaurdian · Nov 6, 2012

PS: Thanks for the exercise

loveme1 · Nov 6, 2012

I believe YHWH was used?

6 Questions for Jehovah's Witnesses

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