Sorry, Skinski, your doctrine is driving the Scriptures.
There is no basis in the text of Ro 5:12-21 for personification, only for specification.
You cannot show personification
in the text.
Speaking of which:
"You simply cannot address the specific points I raise with Scripture," in the following:
The wrath of God is the justice of God.
The answer to your question "Where does Scripture teach Jesus' satisfaction of God's wrath/justice?"
is in
your answers to
my questions:
"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation through faith in his blood.
He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had passed over
(left unpunished) the sins committed beforehand (OT)--he did it to demonstrate his justice
at the present time,so as to be just and the one who justifies." (Ro 3:25-26)
1) What "passed over" the sins committed beforehand (OT)?
2) The "what passed over" consisted precisely of?
3) How did the "what passed over" demonstrate God's justice?
4) For what did Jesus' sacrificial death atone?
5) How does Jesus' sacrificial death atone (make reparation, amends) for it?
6) What is the connection between his atonement and my faith in it (his blood)?
Until you present a consistent and Biblical explanation of the questions above,
"You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures." (Mt 22:29)
"Go and learn what (Ro 3:25-26) means." (Mt 9:13)
"
An individual is accountable for their own sin because without the law sin is not imputed."
That doesn't even make sense.
You don't have a clue regarding the meaning of Ro 5:12-21, which has already been covered with you (here) in the following:
The Bible teaches that we are all
born in bondage to sin, sold to sin by Adam (Ro 5:12-14).
The argument of the text is as follows:
Death is the wages of
sin (Ro 6:23), and all sin is transgression of the
law (1Jn 3:4).
However, there was no law to transgress between Adam and Moses, and yet all mankind died (v.14).
Because death is the wages of
sin, their death means they were
guilty of sin (v.12).
But sin is not taken into account when there is no law (v.13).
So what
sin were those between Adam and Moses
guilty of that
caused their death?
Their death was caused by the transgression of
one man, of which transgression
all mankind was held guilty (Ro 5:15), which is why all men died between Adam and Moses
even though sin was not taken into account, and is the
only cause of death.
All mankind is
born in bondage to sin by their descent from Adam, who sold them to sin (Ro 7:14).
Men did not sell themselves into bondage to sin. Mankind inherited their bondage to sin from Adam,
caused by his transgression of the law, "Thou shalt not eat of it."
Therefore, all mankind is by their sinful nature
born an object of God's wrath (Eph 2:3).
Because you are clueless about the meaning of Ro 3:25-26 (and, therefore, cannot present a consistent and Biblical explanation of my questions regarding it) you are, therefore, clueless about the meaning of Ro 5:12-21.
So any further discussion witih you on atonement or God's gift of righteousness is unproductive until you present that consistent and Biblical explanation of my questions above.
