RUBBISH - you said without equivocation Jesus had concupiscence
YOU choose to call it the evil inclination, then say Jesus had an evil inclination.
i don't care what you or Judaism calls it.
as usual, you love twisting words so YOU can be absolved of your own junk.
worse still, you drag the Savior through your gutter so you can bring Him down to your level - and raise yourself up to His.
after all. He was just an example right?
Romans 7:8
Holman Christian Standard Bible (©2009)
And sin, seizing an opportunity through the commandment, produced in me coveting of every kind. For apart from the law sin is dead.
International Standard Version (©2012)
But sin seized the opportunity provided by this commandment and produced in me all kinds of sinful desires, since apart from the Law, sin is dead.
King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)
But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
(Winers Grammar, § 30, 3 N. 5); specifically, desire for what is forbidden, lust (Vulg.concupiscentia)
you SKINSKI, said without equivocation Jesus had concupiscence
Jesus was a human being and had all the natural passions and desires of a human being.
Jesus would have even had the natural human passion of sexual desire which by definition IS concupiscence.
Concupiscence is not sinful.
Concupiscence -G1939 - epithumia
From G1937; a longing (especially for what is forbidden): - concupiscence, desire, lust (after).
The reason people sin is because they YIELD to concupiscence INSTEAD of RULING OVER IT.
Jas 1:14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
Jas 1:15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
Jesus was tempted.
Jesus was enticed.
Jesus did not allow HImself to be drawn away by His passions and desires. He still had passions and desires.
Jesus was tempted in ALL POINTS as we are.
This temptation is common to man (1Cor 10:13).
Eve has concupiscence (Gen 3:6).
Cain was told to rule over concupiscence (Gen 4:7).
When Paul taught that the law wrought in him all manner of concupiscence he is simply stating that it is through the KNOWLEDGE OF KNOWING RIGHT ACTION that concupiscence is a temptation towards evil practice.
A little baby does not have the intellectual capacity by which concupiscence would be an "evil desire." When one is ignorance concupiscence is simply a natural passion. Hence without law there can be no sin.
Look at the Greek definition and THINK before putting your foot in your mouth like you have done.
Here is the root Verb of the word used on Rom 7:7...
<A-1,Verb,1937,epithumeo>
"to fix the desire upon" (epi, "upon," used intensively, thumos, "passion"), whether things good or bad; hence, "to long for, lust after, covet," is used with the meaning "to covet evilly" in Acts 20:33, of "coveting money and apparel;" so in Rom. 7:7; 13:9. See DESIRE, FAIN, LUST.
Here is the actual word G1939...
<A-1,Noun,1939,epithumia>
"a desire, craving, longing, mostly of evil desires," frequently translated "lust," is used in the following, of good "desires:" of the Lord's "wish" concerning the last Passover, Luke 22:15; of Paul's "desire" to be with Christ, Phil. 1:23; of his "desire" to see the saints at Thessalonica again, 1 Thess. 2:17. With regard to evil "desires," in Col. 3:5 the RV has "desire," for the AV, "concupiscence;" in 1 Thess 4:5, RV, "lust," for AV, "concupiscence;" there the preceding word pathos is translated "passion," RV, for AV, "lust" (see AFFECTION); also in Col. 3:5 pathos and epithumia are associated, RV, "passion," for AV, "inordinate affection." Epithumia is combined with pathema, in Gal. 5:24; for the AV, "affections and lusts," the RV has "passions, and the lusts thereof." Epithumia is the more comprehensive term, including all manner of "lusts and desires;" pathema denotes suffering; in the passage in Gal. (l.c.) the sufferings are those produced by yielding to the flesh; pathos points more to the evil state from which "lusts" spring. Cp. orexis, "lust," Rom. 1:27. See CONCUPISCENCE, LUST, and Trench, Syn. lxxxvii.
Jesus most definitely had concupiscence. It does not mean Jesus was evil or was spotted with sin. It simply means Jesus subjected Himself to EXACTLY the same temptations that human beings are subject to. Jesus was TRULY a man. He was a human being with the Divine Nature and was our example who died on our behalf.
When we die WITH HIM we can be reconciled to God and we can also rule over the passions and desires of the flesh just like He did.
Again by referring to concupiscence as an "evil desire" simply means that it is a "draw" to do that which is forbidden. Human sexual desire for example is a draw to commit fornication or lust in the heart. Yet that desire is not sin, it is simply the natural desire which can be lawfully yielded to within the confines of marriage.
The same word is used (G1939) in Jam 1:14 and is translated to LUST in English.
Jas 1:14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own
lust, and enticed.
Jas 1:15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
Look it up please.