Actually it is a matter of double imputation.
The sins of the elect were imputed to Christ, so Christ became guilty in His person for the sins of His people and was justly punished for those sins, though He was perfectly sinless (2Cor.5:21, Isa.53:4-6, 1Petr.2:24). First of all if Jesus became guilty then He would not have been perfectly sinless and nor would he have been without spot when He offered Himself up to God. You are teaching that Jesus offered Himself up with our spots.
Heb_9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
Now the first proof text you references is this...
2Co 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
First of all Jesus could not literally have been made sin for sin is a moral issue and not a substance. Secondly if Jesus was somehow "made sin" then he would not have been "without spot" would He? Thirdly the language of "made sin" is quite similar to "made in the likeness of sinful flesh" of Rom 8:3 and could very well be a description that Jesus was a man in the flesh just like us. Fourthly the word translated "sin" is used in the Septuagint to refer to "sin offering" multitudes of times so it is very possible that this is what it meant here and the translators translated it "made sin" in order to support their theology, for further information on this contention read what Adam Clarke wrote about it... http://www.studylight.org/com/acc/view.cgi?book=2co&chapter=005
Your second proof text...
Isa 53:4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.
Isa 53:5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
Isa 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
Let's be truthful here. Does that passage say that Jesus Christ became guilty in his person for our sins and was then justly punished for those sins? It doesn't say anything of the sort does it?
It does say that he was esteemed stricken and smitten of God form the human perspective (we esteemed). It sure looked like God had struck and punished Jesus for something. Yet was being put to death on a cross (which is what people esteemed as being stricken and smitten of God) the penalty for sin? I thought it was being cast into hell and then eventually into the Lake of Fire.
Verse 5 does say that He was wounded for our transgressions and bruised for our iniquities (He was wounded and bruised), and that the chastisement of our peace was upon Him, and that by His stripes we are healed. Does this mean that He became guilty in His person and was justly punished for our sins? It doesn't say that does it?
Verse 6 does say that our iniquity was laid upon Him. The sins were laid on the sin offering in the Old Testament. Jesus was our sin bearer. Yet is this teaching that He became guilty and was justly punished like you are teaching?
Did you know that the early church did not teach what you are teaching? Penal Substitution is an invention of the Reformation.
The righteousness of Christ was imputed to His people, thereby His people was made righteous in the person of their substitute and are therefore acceptable before God, even though they are not perfectly sinless (2Cor.5:21, Rom.5:19).
You proof text 2Cor 5:21 again this time as a support for the Imputed Righteousness of Christ.
2Co 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Does that verse say that the righteousness of Jesus is imputed to your account? Be honest about it. Does it say that? It looks to me that it says "we might be MADE the righteousness of God IN Him."
I read this in Romans...
Rom 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
Rom 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Rom 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
And in Galatians I see this...
Gal 5:5 For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.
Gal 5:6 For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.
Thus this verse...
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
...is speaking of EXAMPLE and not of a transfer of virtue. Does Rom 5:19 actually state that the righteousness of Christ is credited to your account?
If one does not believe in salvation by this imputed righteousness, then one obviously believes in salvation by a righteousness of his own. It has to be one of them two and not both at the same time. They can never mix. How about a righteousness which is wrought in an individual because they are yielded fully to God? A righteousness rooted in purity of heart.
1Pe 1:22 Seeing ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit unto unfeigned love of the brethren, see that ye love one another with a pure heart fervently:
Jesus did say...
Mat 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.
The clear context of Mat 5:20 was in relation to what comes out of the heart because Jesus compared "outer sin" with "sin in the heart." A purified soul does not have sin in the heart does it?
I dare say this Imputed Righteousness of Christ is a fiction invented in the minds of men.
Hence in Rom.10:3, God states that those who are ignorant of God's righteousness are lost since they are yet going about to establish their own righteousness. Isn't God's righteousness simply God's STANDARD of DOING WHAT IS RIGHT? Wouldn't establishing OUR OWN righteousness be setting up our own standard apart from God's standard? That verse does talk about "being ignorant" of God's righteousness. If one is ignorant of God's standards what is left but to establish your own.
What is this righteousness of God that is so crucially important that those who are ignorant about it are said to be lost? Rom. 1:17 says that the gospel reveals God's righteousness.
One key passage that gives more information about this subject is found in Romans 3:
Rom 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
Rom 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
Rom 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: A faith that works by love (Gal 5:6) which upholds the righteousness of the law (Rom 3:31).
Rom 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
Rom 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: The Spirit of life in Jesus Christ sets one free from the law of sin and death (Rom 8:2). Redemption literally means redeemed by payment of ransom. The blood of Christ was the payment. Jesus did not pay for our sins, Jesus paid for us.
Rom 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; His righteousness was declared in that He was a sin offering with blemish.
Rom 3:26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
Now, let's look at Psalm 32:
Psa 32:1 A Psalm of David, Maschil. Blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, whose sin is covered.
Psa 32:2 Blessed is the man unto whom the LORD imputeth not iniquity, and in whose spirit there is no guile.
Back to Paul in Romans 4:
Rom 4:4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
Rom 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Faith is counted for righteousness. IT DOES NOT SAY THAT THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF JESUS IS CREDITED TO YOU.
Rom 4:6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
Rom 4:7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
Rom 4:8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
Clearly David was talking about the blessedness of the man to whom God not only does not impute iniquity but also does impute righteousness apart from works. The perfect righteousness of Christ is imputed or legally charged to God's people YET THE BIBLE DOES NOT SAY THIS ANYWHERE. IT IS A DOCTRINE OF MEN. IF IT IS TRUE WHERE DOES THE BIBLE SAY ANYTHING LIKE THAT????????????????????????????????, and David, just as all Old Testament Saints, believed this. Psalm 32:1-2 shows us that the atoning blood is that by which our transgressions are lifted and our sins covered. The imputed righteousness is that by which we are declared righteous before God. Same principle in OT as NT.
To affirm the biblical principle of imputed righteousness is very important when refuting justification by works since it clearly shows that justification is by something wholly outside of the efforts of man which causes God to declare us righteous. God imputes one righteous APART from the works of the law. God reckons FAITH as righteousness. FAITH IS A WORK and FAITH WORKS BY LOVE. If one is truly yielded and thus led by God then God reckons that person as righteous by their faith. Saving faith is simply the active dynamic of full conviction by which we yield completely to God. Works- and self righteousness advocates, who are unregenerate and do not believe the gospel, always oppose and hate the doctrine of imputed righteousness. Imputed Righteousness is true, it is the Imputed Righteousness of Christ which is false. Because, even they, understands that, if true, it means there is no space to boast left for man. The boast was in keeping the law.
Rom 2:17 Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God,
The Pharisees saught their righteousness in outward works apart from a faith that works by love. They were inwardly defiled. Outward works do not purify the heart, the heart can only be purified by faithfully yielding to God (Act 15:9). Your doctrine completely negates heart purity and replaces it with a fictitious cloak. Thhe Bible says it is THE PURE IN HEART THAT WILL SEE GOD, it does not say anything about a judicial purity cloak.
You are beholden to extremely dangerous error Tribesman.
The gospel reveals how God is just when He justifies the ungodly. It reveals God as a "just God and a Saviour" (Isa.45:21). Any other "gospel" that reveals God to be neither a just God nor a Savior is a false gospel. The true and living God is one who does not show love, mercy, and grace at the expense of His justice. The righteous demands of His Law must be completely satisfied WHERE DOES THE BIBLE SAY THAT????????????? In the parable of the unfogiving servant the servant was FREELY FORGIVEN without payment being made. Jesus purchased us with His blood, the Bible does not teach anywhere that He satisfied the wrath of God by aborbing our punishment. for all those whom He shows love, mercy and grace. And the true Christ established such a righteousness that demands the salvation of all those whom He represented.