What does Paul mean by “women will be saved through childbearing”?

Why did Paul say women will be saved through childbearing?

1 Timothy 2:15

11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. 15 But women will be saved through childbearing, if they continue in faith, love and holiness with sobriety.

it means if you can give birth you have called on the Lord to save you

This is a reference to the sanctification of Christian women as they have children and focus their attention on raising obedient and believing children, while being a good mother and wife. It is God's desire for women to marry and have children, which are a blessing from the Lord. Even young widows are encouraged to marry in Scripture.

Since we know that Paul makes it perfectly clear that all are justified by grace through faith, this is not about justification but about sanctification.

Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and
thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.
Genesis 3:16

Wander through any 19th century cemetery and look at the dates and info on the headstones.
You will notice the many infant graves and also of women who died "young."
Childbirth was difficult in past times and many a woman died of complications and bleeding due to
traumatic and injurious birthing. More so in rural towns with a lot less medical and hospital services.

14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.
1Timothy 2:
here is a promise of help from God for a Christian woman to survive childbirth and to successfully deliver a live child.

For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
1Corinthians 7:14

(ASV) but she shall be saved through her child-bearing, if they continue in faith and love and sanctification with sobriety.
(BBE) But if they go on in faith and love and holy self-control, she will be kept safe at the time of childbirth.
(ABP+) But she shall be preserved G4982 G1161 through G1223 the G3588 childbearing, G5042

I look forward to reading this thread.

For an explanation of this verse to be sound and valid it must consider the cultural context into which it was written. Otherwise the explanations are likely to be speculative at best, and heretical at worst. Uncover the context, uncover the meaning.

I think the Amplified Bible has a footnote that reads this refers to the virgin Mary who birthed Jesus.

I think its not about child bearing generally, but about one specific child bearing that happened 2,000 years ago.

However, I have found only one English translation that has the same/similar view:

"It was the woman who was deceived and became disobedient, even though she will be saved through the birth of the Child, if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, along with good judgment."
1 Tm 3:15 (ISV)

Yes, and in context, the woman is Eve.

Women are not saved by bearing children, they are saved through the birth of "the Child".

Before the modern era childbirth was a dangerous endeavor. Many women have lost their lives in the process. So Occam's Razor suggests that Paul was assuring godly women that GOD would deliver them through the danger of childbirth.

yeaaaah...I'm going with this one

this one sounds plausable also

women have been given the 'gift' of Yeshua to give/continue life to mankind, and thus
continuing His life's process to procreate man-kind until the 'end/beginning' of His Book'...

Some may see the word saved and think it has to mean eternal salvation, but the word σώζω (sozo) can mean physical deliverance like it does here:

One of the biggest errors made by many....and that particular error that leads to faulty conclusions is to believe or assume that every time the word saved is used it means salvation of the soul..............it does not......!

(ABP+) But she shall be preservedG4982 G1161 throughG1223 theG3588 childbearing,G5042 ifG1437 they abideG3306 inG1722 belief,G4102
andG2532 love,G26 andG2532 sanctification,G38 withG3326 discreetness.G4997

G4982 - σώζω - sōzō
“safe”; to save, that is, deliver or protect (literally or figuratively): - heal, preserve, save (self), do well, be (make) whole.
Total KJV occurrences: 110

Marcelo, you just happened to put up one of the most difficult passages to understand in the Bible.

To start out, we must go back to the fall of Man. Isaid the fall of Man because it was Adam's Sin that caused the Fall of Man. While EVE was deceived into eating of the fruit, Adam made a conscious decision to eat of the fruit. Thus it was His responsibility for Man's fall. No where does the Bible allude or otherwise state that EVE was responsible for the fall of Mankind.

In 1 Timothy 2:14-.."And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. "

In the next verse 1 Tim 2:15.."Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety. "

The "Notwithstanding" refers back to verse 14 where she was deceived into the transgression. Even so, **"she shall be saved in childbearing"(KJV). By being able to have children, her life is spared immediately after the transgression and beyond. Also, through Jesus Christ, born of woman,, she (plural) will be save through HIM IF and only IF "if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety. "

** The Septuagint version is ""Women will be preserved through the bearing of children"

Hope this helps.

Blade

Who needs some saving?