What do you make of 2 Peter 3:9? You seem to be contradicting yourself in this post.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
I was only trying to drive home a point.
I don't believe it's not God's will for all to come to repentance so they don't perish. I believe what is written, AS IT IS WRITTEN.
I understand God leaves out words and even phrases to hide some truths, but when it takes a promise in an entirely different direction, that to me is perverting or corrupting scripture and the truth.
What I was doing by
adding the will of God to the verses like the one above, was to show how drastically it changes the meaning of the promise.
I don't get any replies when I do this because I think they see just how stupid it sounds. Yet many here on CC do it all the time to certain promises.
To many, it's okay for it to be God's will for everyone to come to repentance, but it is a horse of a different when it come to scripture that promises to give you whatsoever YOU WANT, WILL, OR DESIRE.
What should be foundational doctrines of the church, is treated as doctrines of devils.
Basic truths become lies, and the lies become truths.
Good is treated as evil, and evil as good, blessings as curses and curses as blessings.
Sickness use to be a curse, now it is a blessing of God.
Scripture is either ignored, perverted, twisted, or tainted some way to change the meaning.
A corrupt tree can only produce corrupt fruit.
I see the same thing going on with scripture as I do in the political world.
Lies and deception to keep the people under their influence.
So let's look at the verse again, and another one, only with the will of God added to it, and tell me if it changes the meaning.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance,
if it be the will of God.
Well, did it change the meaning any?
Does it even make any sense?
Did it remain the truth after adding the will of God to it?
Now let's look at other verses with the same thing added to the end.
Mar 11:23 For verily I say unto you, That whosoever shall say unto this mountain, Be thou removed, and be thou cast into the sea; and shall not doubt in his heart, but shall believe that those things which he saith shall come to pass;
he shall have whatsoever he saith, if it be the will of God.
Mar 11:24 Therefore I say unto you,
What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them,
if it be the will of God.
Jas 5:14 Is any sick among you? let him call for the elders of the church; and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord:
Jas 5:15
And the prayer of faith shall save the sick, and the Lord shall raise him up; and if he have committed sins, they shall be forgiven him,
if it be the will of God.
I could go on and on with this.
You don't need to ADD the will of God to any of the above verses, because the will of God or the conditions of God are already written.
Point being, if it doesn't make sense adding the will of God to scripture concerning salvation and other pet doctrines of the denominational churches, since it changes the meaning of the promises, turns it into a lie, corrupts, twists, and perverts it, why then in God's name do they do it to other promises?
To me, this profanes the word of God and that is not only blasphemous, but an abomination to God.