Is Salvation by Jesus alone the only way to heaven?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Is Salvation by Jesus alone the only way to heaven?

  • No

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Not Sure

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    30

Whispered

Well-known member
Aug 17, 2019
4,551
2,230
113
www.christiancourier.com
#41
I'm sorry, if I am not understanding what you are saying. Are you saying that God gave his Son all mankind?
I didn't say that brother, or sister, forgive me for not knowing which as I don't see gender ID's in profile blocks. I would offer that it was our Lord that said as much. Would you agree? Or not?
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#42
Does a child have to have faith in Christ and believe that Christ died for their sins? The kind of salvation you teach?
Did those unregenerate people who were spiritually dead have faith in Christ and believed that Christ died for their sins before God quickened them to spiritual life in Eph 2? Read Eph 2 and let me know. A child is quickened to a spiritual life the same way as those unregenerate people in Eph 2, or anyone else is.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#43
I didn't say that brother, or sister, forgive me for not knowing which as I don't see gender ID's in profile blocks. I would offer that it was our Lord that said as much. Would you agree? Or not?
I disagree. John 6:38 says that Jesus only died for those that his Father gave him. If he died for all mankind, then all mankind has a home in heaven secured for him, because Jesus said that he would not lose any of those he died for and would raise them up at the last day. Would you agree? I assume that you have other scriptures that you think refute John 6:38, but all scriptures must harmonize to understand the doctrine that Jesus taught.
 

CharliRenee

Member
Staff member
Nov 4, 2014
6,693
7,177
113
#44
Forgive me, if I am wrong, but , to me, you are making a statement that is right the opposite of mine. I am saying that repentance, realizing we need a Savior and accepting Jesus as one who saves is a result of being born again.
Yes, I believe the repentence comes first, that we need to realize we need a Savior, that being born again comes as a result of accepting and receiving Christ our Saviour. I do agree that would not be possible without the nudging, the calling of Him, if you will. I agree every part of our salvation belongs to the Lord. Jonah made that declaration before being released from the pit of the creature. I make it as well.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#45
The Book of John chapter 6 verses 37 to 39
Jesus the Bread of Life
…37Everyone the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will never drive away. 38For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but to do the will of Him who sent Me. 39And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that I shall lose none of those He has given Me, but raise them up at the last day
So, do your quoted scriptures say that he died for all mankind, or only the ones that God gave him?
 

Whispered

Well-known member
Aug 17, 2019
4,551
2,230
113
www.christiancourier.com
#46
So, do your quoted scriptures say that he died for all mankind, or only the ones that God gave him?
I disagree. John 6:38 says that Jesus only died for those that his Father gave him. If he died for all mankind, then all mankind has a home in heaven secured for him, because Jesus said that he would not lose any of those he died for and would raise them up at the last day. Would you agree? I assume that you have other scriptures that you think refute John 6:38, but all scriptures must harmonize to understand the doctrine that Jesus taught.
The Book of John chapter 3 and particularly verse 16
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
5,096
932
113
#47
Did those unregenerate people who were spiritually dead have faith in Christ and believed that Christ died for their sins before God quickened them to spiritual life in Eph 2? Read Eph 2 and let me know. A child is quickened to a spiritual life the same way as those unregenerate people in Eph 2, or anyone else is.
I don't see anything in Eph 2 not unless you explain.
What do children have to do to get saved? I want to know because in the same manner, i'm saved.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#48
Yes, I believe the repentence comes first, that we need to realize we need a Savior, that being born again comes as a result of accepting and receiving Christ our Saviour. I do agree that would not be possible without the nudging, the calling of Him, if you will. I agree every part of our salvation belongs to the Lord. Jonah made that declaration before being released from the pit of the creature. I make it as well.
Would you be so kind, as to tell me how you interpret 1 Cor 2:14? After you do, tell me how the natural man who cannot discern spiritual things can believe in spiritual things and how his heart of stone can be pricked to bring him to repentance? When God quickens us to a spiritual life, Eph 2, what takes place is explained in Ezk 36:26.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#49
The Book of John chapter 3 and particularly verse 16
Do you think that John 3:16 will harmonize with John 6:38? I think that it does, but I interpret John 3:16 differently than you do. If you interpret the word "world" as meaning all mankind, will it harmonize with John 6:38 or with 1 John 2:15. Why would God tell us to not love a world that he says that he "so loves"? unless he is speaking of two different worlds? Thayer's Greek interpretation of the word "world" in John 3:16 is used of believers only, he also says it means the same in John 1:29, 3:17, 6:33, 12:47, 1 Cor 4:9, and 2 Cor 5:19. in This line of thinking, John 6:38, John 3:16 and 1 John 2:15 all harmonize.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#50
The natural man will not call on a spiritual God about spiritual things that he cannot discern 1 Cor 2:14. Instead of just saying "Wrong" you should present scriptures that backs your reply up.
Wrong

You can not be born again in sin, you are dead until you are justified,

We are justified by faith,

Justification MUST precede rebirth, we are born again BECAUSE we have been justified.
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
5,096
932
113
#51
Do you think that John 3:16 will harmonize with John 6:38? I think that it does, but I interpret John 3:16 differently than you do. If you interpret the word "world" as meaning all mankind, will it harmonize with John 6:38 or with 1 John 2:15. Why would God tell us to not love a world that he says that he "so loves"? unless he is speaking of two different worlds? Thayer's Greek interpretation of the word "world" in John 3:16 is used of believers only, he also says it means the same in John 1:29, 3:17, 6:33, 12:47, 1 Cor 4:9, and 2 Cor 5:19. in This line of thinking, John 6:38, John 3:16 and 1 John 2:15 all harmonize.
But your ideas are not in harmony with:

Rom 8:
18I consider that our present sufferings are not worth comparing with the glory that will be revealed in us. 19For the creation waits in eager expectation for the children of God to be revealed. 20For the creation was subjected to frustration, not by its own choice, but by the will of the one who subjected it, in hope 21that h the creation itself will be liberated from its bondage to decay and brought into the freedom and glory of the children of God.

22We know that the whole creation has been groaning as in the pains of childbirth right up to the present time. 23Not only so, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for our adoption to sonship, the redemption of our bodies.

Salvation is for everything including stones.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#52
I don't see anything in Eph 2 not unless you explain.
What do children have to do to get saved? I want to know because in the same manner, i'm saved.
Eph 2 verse 5 explains that "Even when we were Spiritually Dead in sins, hath he quickened (saved eternally) us together with Christ (by grace are ye saved) Before we are quickened we were just like the unregenerate (Spiritually dead) and could not discern anything of a spiritual nature, such as believing in a spiritual God, and we had our old heart before God changed it in the new birth, Ezk 36:26. Our old heart could not be bricked by the Holy Spirit to bring us to repentance. This is the process that God uses to transform the natural man into a spiritual man. Man plays no part in it, that is why it is called "saved eternally by God's grace", without the help of man
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
5,096
932
113
#53
Eph 2 verse 5 explains that "Even when we were Spiritually Dead in sins, hath he quickened (saved eternally) us together with Christ (by grace are ye saved) Before we are quickened we were just like the unregenerate (Spiritually dead) and could not discern anything of a spiritual nature, such as believing in a spiritual God, and we had our old heart before God changed it in the new birth, Ezk 36:26. Our old heart could not be bricked by the Holy Spirit to bring us to repentance. This is the process that God uses to transform the natural man into a spiritual man. Man plays no part in it, that is why it is called "saved eternally by God's grace", without the help of man
You missed my point completely. I asked how children are saved. If all children are eternally saved then how comes some people will face the hell fire? Do these people that are judged lose their salvation if they were born saved or if they had this salvation as children?
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#54
Wrong

You can not be born again in sin, you are dead until you are justified,

We are justified by faith,

Justification MUST precede rebirth, we are born again BECAUSE we have been justified.
Those that God gave to Jesus were made just by his death on the cross, Justified. We are justified by faith, that is true, but by whose faith? The faith (faithfulness) of Christ to obey his Father and submit to go to the cross. Gal 2:16, Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ. Eph 2:8, For by grace are ye saved through faith (of Jesus), not our faith, and that not of yourselves.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#55
You missed my point completely. I asked how children are saved. If all children are eternally saved then how comes some people will face the hell fire? Do these people that are judged lose their salvation if they were born saved or if they had this salvation as children?
You are misinterpreting me, I did not say all children are saved eternally. You must have heard that from someone else beside me. We are all born in natural birth as dead alien sinners and are all born again (saved) in the same manner, both adults and children. My belief from the scriptures is that all children who die in their youth have been born again, because in Psalms 73 it says that the wicked go unpunished by God until the last day and do not die in their youth.
 

ForestGreenCook

Well-known member
Jul 8, 2018
8,441
1,213
113
#56
But your ideas are not in harmony with:

Rom 8:
18I consider that our present sufferings are not worth comparing with the glory that will be revealed in us. 19For the creation waits in eager expectation for the children of God to be revealed. 20For the creation was subjected to frustration, not by its own choice, but by the will of the one who subjected it, in hope 21that h the creation itself will be liberated from its bondage to decay and brought into the freedom and glory of the children of God.

22We know that the whole creation has been groaning as in the pains of childbirth right up to the present time. 23Not only so, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for our adoption to sonship, the redemption of our bodies.

Salvation is for everything including stones.
Verse 21 explains that the "creation" is talking about the people who will be transformed into the glorious liberty of the children of God I fail to see that Romans 8 does not harmonize with the scriptures that I have quoted. Can you explain?
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
5,096
932
113
#57
You are misinterpreting me, I did not say all children are saved eternally. You must have heard that from someone else beside me. We are all born in natural birth as dead alien sinners and are all born again (saved) in the same manner, both adults and children. My belief from the scriptures is that all children who die in their youth have been born again, because in Psalms 73 it says that the wicked go unpunished by God until the last day and do not die in their youth.
The question is, how are these children born again without ever knowing who Jesus is and confesing anything?
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
5,096
932
113
#58
Verse 21 explains that the "creation" is talking about the people who will be transformed into the glorious liberty of the children of God I fail to see that Romans 8 does not harmonize with the scriptures that I have quoted. Can you explain?
There's clear difference between 'all creation' and the 'sons of God' in that passage.
Paul talks of liberty from decay for all creation, the sons of God don't decay but are liberated from sin whereas non living things are liberated from decay caused by sin.
 

Whispered

Well-known member
Aug 17, 2019
4,551
2,230
113
www.christiancourier.com
#59
Do you think that John 3:16 will harmonize with John 6:38? I think that it does, but I interpret John 3:16 differently than you do. If you interpret the word "world" as meaning all mankind, will it harmonize with John 6:38 or with 1 John 2:15. Why would God tell us to not love a world that he says that he "so loves"? unless he is speaking of two different worlds? Thayer's Greek interpretation of the word "world" in John 3:16 is used of believers only, he also says it means the same in John 1:29, 3:17, 6:33, 12:47, 1 Cor 4:9, and 2 Cor 5:19. in This line of thinking, John 6:38, John 3:16 and 1 John 2:15 all harmonize.
I believe John 6 harmonizes with John 3:16, yes.
If we take your contention, that Jesus came to save only those whom Father God gave to him, then what of that Godly characteristic our Father is said to possess, Omni-Benevolence?
God does all things for the zeal of His own glory. God predestined all things, as we're told throughout the scriptures. If we go with your proposal about Jesus saving only those our eternally knowledgeable Father planned to give him prior to the creation of the world and wrote those names in the Lamb's Book of Life, then what would be the point of Proselytizing? Going forth, as Jesus commanded his Disciples, to bring the Good News to all the world when God, who was Jesus, had already predetermined by name only those persons who would be saved by His free gift of grace.
This would also necessitate the contrary. That God had predetermined before the world came into being by His creative will those who would die in the state of damnation, or sin, that had not yet come into the world because God had not yet created the first people to begin that process under the Law of God given first in Eden.

God being a superior intelligence, laying out all who would come to Christ and giving them to what is essentially Himself as that Savior, would have foreordained who would be saved throughout all time, and conversely whom would be damned. Which would make our part, repentance, unnecessary. Because God had , per your model, it all worked out as to who among the human race His sacrifice on the cross was meant to save.

When those names were in the Lamb's Book of Life before the world came to be, the names of those God meant to be saved, God being a superior power would have in every sense done it all prior to the creation of anything. And we in turn would have to do not one thing since God foreordained our Salvation was secured by name in that book.
 

Dan58

Senior Member
Nov 13, 2013
1,991
339
83
#60
This may be the only thread I've seen where everyone is essentially in complete agreement (according to the poll).