Hey Akwatukee,
Hope the Lord is giving you a good day. Alright, here we go
lol
Paul wasn't warning the Thessalonians, he was comforting them. There were some there who were teaching that the Day of the Lord had already come, which is the time of God's wrath. The Thessalonians were writing to Paul because if the Day of the Lord had truly come, then they were concerned as to why they hadn't been caught up to meet the Lord in the air according to what Paul taught them. Paul comforts them by telling them that the Day of the Lord (the time of God's wrath) will not come until the apostasy takes place and the man of lawlessness is revealed. The comfort is that, the appearing of our Lord and our being gathered to Him, will take place prior to the Day of the Lord.
I agree to most of the quote above, but... "
prior to the Day of the Lord" is based on the assumption of the pre-trib rapture. This is being read into scripture, not scripture speaking for itself. The Day of the Lord is
when we will be gathered up.
Where's scripture that said that the "
appearing of the Lord" is separate from the "
Day of the Lord?" Seems like this is the implication that is given in the quote above.
Where's scripture that said we will be gathered "
prior to the Day of the Lord?"
2 Thessalonians 2:3-4
(3) Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
(4) Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
It clearly said that the Day of the Lord ("that day") will not come, except the falling away (apostasy), and the man of sin be revealed.
After the abomination has been set up, She/Israel will flee out into the wilderness--which is the desolation-and will be cared for by God for 1260 days, which is that last 3 1/2 years of that seven year period. The church, which again is made up of both Jew and Gentiles, is a separate entity from the unbelieving nation of Israel, both having different end-time programs.
I agree, the unbelieving nation of Israel is separate from the Body of Christ (Jew and Gentile believers). If we look at
2 Thessalonians 2:4, it speaks about the son of perdition sitting in the temple, which is the abomination of desolation.
So if the abomination of desolation is set up for the last 3 1/2 years of the 7 year period, then how is the Day of the Lord before the 7 year period when 2 Thess. 2:3-4 said otherwise?
Unless there's still the assumption that we will be taken up
prior. If so, then give me scripture that supports that claim?
It is the unbelieving nation of Israel that God is going to deal with and who is in view in Matt.24 and Rev.12.
If Matt. 24 and Rev.12 is only delegated to the unbelieving nation of Israel, then who is John talking about in verse 17?
And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ. (Revelation 12:17)
Who is the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God,
AND has the testimony of Jesus? Meaning that they believe in Jesus.
Isn't the seed the Body of Christ (church)?
Galatians 3:28-29
(28) there is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor freeman, neither male nor female; for in union with the Messiah Yeshua (Jesus), you are all one.
(29) Also, if you belong to the Messiah, you are seed of Avraham and heirs according to the promise.
If it isn't, what scripture said otherwise?
Speaking of Rev. 12, I think we're also ignoring what it said in Chapter 13.
Revelation 13:7-8
(7) And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over all kindreds, and tongues, and nations.
(8) And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.
I know you believe in the "tribulation saints," but it doesn't make sense that they would go through the Wrath of God, especially if you say that the Wrath consists of all the seals and trumpets, which would be a contradiction. Going around in circles in order to prove something that isn't scriptural.
You and others are not making a distinction between the common persecutions and tribulations which comes at the hands of men and the powers of darkness vs. the coming unprecedented wrath of God. You're not understanding that the coming wrath of God via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments as being a specific period when God is going to be pouring out His wrath upon a Christ-rejecting world. This period of wrath, also known as 'the Day of the Lord' must take place prior to and continues right up to when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age which is not meant for the church. Therefore, it will be no "slap in the face for all who have died in Christ" because they suffered because of their faith and not the wrath of God. It is important for you and others to distinguish between the two.
After that, the Day of the Lord will begin, the time of God's wrath, which will be initiated by the opening of the first seal, which is performed by the Lamb, Jesus Christ.
What scripture said that the Wrath of God encompasses the Seals, Trumpets, and Bowls of "Wrath?" Otherwise it's a self conceived assumption that's being read into scripture.
If anything, it does mention the Day of the Wrath of God after the 6th seal is broken:
For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand? (Revelation 6:17)
The 7th trumpet also aligns with the Wrath that "is come" (KJV), or "has come" (CJB) in
Rev. 11:18:
And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth.
If the Wrath of God consists of all the seals, then why didn't they mention that at the beginning. Noticed your greek interpretation and it doesn't make sense when you look at the context of the opening of the seals as a whole, let alone verse 17 listed above. Which speaks about the "great day of his wrath is come," or "has come." Context!
I'll need a little more than a greek interpretation to change the whole context. Scripture please?
Otherwise it doesn't make sense...
It specifically said that the Wrath of God is poured out from bowls/or vials. Doesn't say that the seals and trumpets are poured out.
And I heard a great voice out of the temple saying to the seven angels, Go your ways, and pour out the vials of the wrath of God upon the earth. (Revelation 16:1)
Man, I don't see how you can just crank these out fast, unless you just have it saved and just paste it. Might have to talk point by point. Specifically, where in scripture does it talk about pre-trib rapture? That's the root of all this. There's no clear scripture stating so, unless we use and twist other scriptures to fit that doctrine. Not only that, but simply changing a word can be dangerous. Exactly what the serpent did in the Garden of Eden.
Thankful that you believe that Jesus is God. Looking forward to your reply.