The Lord Jesus and His Holy Scriptures are One (The Scripture Personified) Pt. 1 & 2

Websters Dictionary?

Is not the Bible its own dictionary as a source of faith, or law of faith? Webster a paraphrase?

I don't understand your 'tongues'

It was not about tongues or different translations but the "manner of spirit". the kind that can cause discourse flesh and blood against or where sparks fly.

How can we hear God not seen? Most translations preach the gospel successfully .If God applies his Spirit as the teacher many beleive . We can plant or water with the doctrines of God . . he does the teaching and growing if any. To say we are limited to one translation becomes a works righteousness, self edifying.

It could be a sign a person is not walking by faith? Therefore having that faith in respect to their favorite author, taking away the authority of the Holy Spirit who is fully capable of preserving the gospel through the many different ways or the oral traditions of men. Its the oral traditions of corrupted mankind that makes Christ's faith without effect. They having their own foundation based on "out of sight out of mind." . atheism, paganism

Sorry, Is the bible its own dictionary and does it as it is written define the words as thoughts of God written in it?

I agree that humans don't have the power to limit God's word.


10. For as the rain comes down and the snow from the sky, and doesn`t return there, but waters the earth, and makes it bring forth and bud, and gives seed to the sower and bread to the eater;

11. so shall my word be that goes forth out of my mouth: it shall not return to me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing I sent it to do.


(Isaiah, 55)


but this simply brings the question:

are the phrases

God's word


or


the word of God


synonymous with the kjv?

1. Now in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, Pontius Pilate being governor of Judea, and Herod being tetrarch of Galilee, and his brother Philip tetrarch of the region of Ituraea and Trachonitis, and Lysanias tetrarch of Abilene,


2. in the high priesthood of Annas and Caiaphas, the word of God came to John, the son of Zacharias, in the wilderness.


(Luke, 3)


did the KJV come to John in the wilderness?


did the entire Bible we have today come to him?

big picture:


is the KJV, word for word, God's word?

if so, why?

Your god is too small; you consider him unable to use any version of Scripture.

Sorry, Is the bible its own dictionary and does it as it is written define the words as thoughts of God written in it?

Yes, as given in the KJV. No other version defines itself.

All versions define the private interpretations (commentaries of the men) as personal paraphrases . . None come directly from the mouth of God who moves men without some kind of error . The gospel of grace is made clear in most. How men hear is the difference.

My God is a God of Order. And He is also a God that hates every false way. God uses and blesses that which hath proceeded from Him.

The modern translations which are based on the corrupt Sinaiticus and Vaticanus texts have no life in them. For they did not proceed from Him.

On the other hand, the King James Holy Bible did proceed forth from God, that is why it is living. It is Quick and Powerful.

Modern versions such as the NIV, ESV, CEV, the Message, etc. are Dead and dull.

Yes, as given in the KJV. No other version defines itself.

Words matter, not paraphrases. You need the correct words to compare words. That's how true bible study is done. That's how the KJV defines itself.

How would you know, since you don't read any other version? More empty opinion.

I have compare other versions and they use different words within the same version which makes it difficult to compare scripture to scripture. Individual words and phrases are helpful to compare in regards to where in the Bible the same word or phrase is located.

Words matter, not paraphrases. You need the correct words to compare words.

Again, from the 1611 Preface:

For is the kingdom of God become words or syllables? Why should we be in bondage to them, if we may be free?

You're going in circles, as usual. You have no substantive argument for your opinion that the KJV has the correct words. You just have opinion upon pretext upon saying upon opinion, none of it with any weight. Only the simple-minded are swayed by such bafflegab.

Amen! It’s the simple minded that believe, but the scholarly mind is convinced that he is his own final authority. 😉

So the 54 scholarly-minded translators of the KJV were convinced of their own authority.

Keep posting silly arguments, and I'll keep shredding them.

How refreshing it is to know I hold the preserved completed word of God in my hands!