^
@FreeGrace2 , I had previously stated it to you like this (and you didn't like it):
Verse 1 is speaking SOLELY
and ONLY of our Rapture and our Rapture point-in-time,
Well, now you have given up on your embellished word salads. Thank you for being this clear, finally. Except for "point in time".
What, exactly, is the "point in time" of this rapture?
However, there are 2 phrases in v.1, yet you seem to claim that they are the same thing.
You have not explained what "the coming of the Lord" means. That phrase is separated by a conjunction of CONTINUATION (and).
But you have ignored that and claim v.1 is only about the rapture. OK, that's your opinions. Thanks. But this verse says nothing about going to heaven.
...when Jesus will descend TO "the meeting of the Lord IN THE AIR" where WE (and WE ALONE) will be "caught UP / -AWAY" to that location (NO ONE ELSE will be in His "presence" THERE)
Why are you adding "away" to what v.1 DOESN'T SAY?
Why do you take the libery to make up whatever you want?
"the coming of OUR Lord Jesus Christ, and / even OUR episynagoges UNTO HIM"...
OK I see. You choose to pick your own meaning to "kai". I know the word has a range of meanings. But how many translations on biblehub.com translated "kai" as "even", which equates the 2 phrases?
That is "our Rapture [IN THE AIR]" event (at one singular point-in-time).
And the point in time is WHAT?
This is the Subject that PAUL is BRINGING TO BEAR (bringing to the fore) on the "problem" disclosed in v.2
That the rapture hasn't occurred yet?
Well, you are free to your own opinions, but the phrase "the coming of the Lord" is clearly referring to the Lord's SECOND COMING.
But it's interesting to see how you have explained it to support your opinion.
But... let's examine all three verses again.
1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters,
2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come.
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
OK, you claim v.1 is only about the rapture, where you believe that Jesus takes the gathered ones back to heaven, although there is NO mention of such an event.
But never mind that. Just keep in mind that you claim v.1 is about the rapture.
v.2 then is about Paul countering the claims of some that the rapture has already occurred. OK?
Now, v.3 is crystal clear. "That day", which would be the rapture, from v.1, "will not come UNTIL the rebellion OCCURS and the man of lawlessness (beast, a/c) is revealed".
So, v.3 says the rapture DOESN'T OCCUR UNTIL the beast (a/c) is revealed.
So you have just sunk your pretrib view. v.1-3 STILL teach that the tribulation occurs before the rapture. And I agree with that.
Just remember that all 3 verses (1-3) are about the SAME THING. And you claim v.1 IS about the rapture.